MICROBIOLOGY 2420 - EXAM 1A

CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER

1. In addition to organisms that require a microscope to be seen, microbiology also includes the topics of

1. immunology
2. sterilization
3. disinfection
4. sewage treatment
5. more than one of the above is correct

2. In natural cycles (biogeochemical) microorganisms function to

1. promote disease
2. build up organic matter
3. return essential elements to the soil
4. fix carbon dioxide
5. more than one of the above is correct

3. Which of the following is not an area in which microorganisms play a significant role?

1. health
2. decay
3. industrial processes
4. plastic synthesis
5. basic research

4. The microscope was invented by

1. Janssen
2. Van Leeuwnhoek
3. Redi
4. Needham
5. Schwann

5. The first person to observe microorganisms was

1. Janssen
2. Van Leeuwnhoek
3. Redi
4. Needham
5. Schwann

6. The scientist (s) who sealed flasks of boiled media with sterile cotton in an attempt to disprove spontaneous generation was (were)

1. Pasteur
2. Schroder and von Dusch
3. Neddham
4. Spallazani
5. Schwann

7. Which of the following did not make a contribution to the germ theory of disease?

1. Fracastoro
2. Semmelweis
3. Pasteur
4. Koch
5. Spallazani

8. The rules which are still used today for demonstrating an organism that causes an infectious disease were developed by

1. Pasteur
2. Koch
3. Semmelweis
4. Spallazani
5. Schroder and von Dush

9. The first vaccination was performed by

1. Pasteur
2. Jenner
3. Koch
4. Semmelweis
5. Lister

10. The importance of phagocytic cells in body defense was demonstrated by

1. Nuttal and Bordet
2. Klebs and loeffler
3. Metchnikoff
4. Von Behring and Kitasato
5. Iwanowsky

11. The mosquito borne nature of yellow fever was demonstrate by

1. Ronald Ross
2. Paul Erlich
3. John Enders
4. Walter Reed
5. Aaron Thielengerdes

12. The first chemother apeutic agents against syphillis was discovered by

1. Ronald Ross
2. Paul Erlich
3. Ronald Wernli
4. Walter Reed
5. John Enders

13. Which of the following is true of both procaryotic and eucaryotic cells?

1. Size is less than 5 microns
2. A true nucleus is present
3. Chromosome is circular
4. Ribosomes are 70 s
5. A plasma membrane is present

14. The cell wall in procaryotes is composed primarily of

1. cellulose
2. hemicellulose
3. chitin
4. peptidoglycan
5. none of the above

15. The membrane invaginations found in procaryotes which function as surfaces for biochemical reactions are termed

1. ribosomes
2. mesosomes
3. pili
4. fimbriae
5. none of the above

16. In eucaryotic cells, the ____ functions as the site for energy production

1. lysosome
2. ribosome
3. mitochondrion
4. peroxisome
5. golgi body

17. The organelle which contains the enzyme catalase is the

1. lysosome
2. peroxisome
3. ribosome
4. chloroplast
5. plasma membrane

18. This organelle which functions as the site of protein synthesis is the

1. lysosome
2. peroxisome
3. ribosome
4. chloroplast
5. plasma membrane

19. Photosynthesis occurs in the

1. chloroplast
2. mitochondrion
3. endoplasmic reticulum
4. ribosome
5. nucleus

20. the flagellum or cilium of an eucaryotic cell is connected to the _____ which is located inside of the cell membrane

1. nucleolus
2. chromosome
3. kinetosome
4. peroxisome
5. lysosome

21. During binary fission in procaryotes, the duplicated chromosomes attach to

1. spindle fibers
2. the equatorial plate
3. either side of a membrane invagination
4. opposite poles of the mother cell
5. none of the above

22. The type of asexual reproduction in eucaryotes where by a number of daughter cells are formed simultaneously is

1. syngamy
2. budding
3. binary fission
4. schizogony
5. more than one of the above is correct

23. In sexual reproduction among microorganisms, the zygote results directly from

1. formation of haploid cells
2. meiosis
3. fusion of haploid cells
4. fusion of diploid cells
5. mitosis

24. The science of the systematic arrangement of organisms best defines

1. classification
2. nomenclature
3. identification
4. taxonomy
5. none of the above

25. Which of the following categories is the most inclusive?

1. phylum
2. class
3. order
4. genus
5. species

26. Which of the following would be the correct way to write a genus and species name?

1. Proteus vulgaris
2. Proteus vulgarisc
3. Proteus vulgarisd
4. proteus vulgaris
5. none of the above

27. Which of the following is a characteristic used to classify microorganisms?

1. morphology
2. cultural characteristics
3. chemical composition
4. genetics
5. more than one of the above is correct

28. The bacteria belong to the kingdom

1. monera
2. protista
3. fungi
4. plantae
5. animalia

29. Bergey’s manual is of significance because

1. it includes all microorganisms
2. it serves as a single source for the identification of all procaryotes
3. it describes the metabolic tests for all protozoa
4. it gives a complete description of all of the fungi
5. more than one of the above is correct

30. Gram positive bacteria

1. are decolorized by alcohol
2. appear pink
3. retain the Gram stain (crystal violet) when treated with alcohol
4. contain much less peptidoglycan in their cell walls than do Gram negative
5. more than one of the above is correct

31. Organisms which arranged in cubical packets of 8 organisms are termed

1. diplococcus
2. streptococcus
3. sarcina
4. staphylococcus
5. none of the above

32. Volume I of Bergey’s manual consists of the

1. ordinary Gram negative bacteria
2. ordinary Gram positive bacteria
3. unusual bacteria
4. Gram positive bacteria of complex morphology
5. None of the above

33. Possession of a peryplasmic flagellum is a distinguishing characteristic of the

1. helical, motile bacteria
2. spirochetes
3. aerobic G-cocci
4. facultatively anaerobic G- rods
5. rickettsias

34. The majority of the sewage transmitted pathogenic bacteria are found in the

1. rickettsias
2. anaerobic, G-, straight, curved, and helical rods
3. facultatively anaerobic G- rods
4. mycoplasms
5. chlamydia

35. The bacteria which cannot generate their own ATP belong to the group

1. rickettsiales
2. mycoplasmas
3. chlamydiales
4. spirochetes
5. helical, motile bacteria

36. The organisms which process myolic acid in their cell walls thereby making them acid-fast belong to the section

1. rikkettsiales
2. mycoplasmas
3. chalamydiales
4. spirochetes
5. helical, motile bacteria

37. The organisms which possess mycolic acid in their cell walls thereby making them acid-fast belong to the section

1. Gram+cocci
2. Endospore forming Gram+bacteria
3. Mycobacterium
4. Nocardioformes
5. None of the above

38. The group of organisms that is considered by many experts to be a sixth kingdom is the

1. oxygenic photoropic bacteria
2. nocardioformes
3. archaebacteria
4. mycobacteria
5. Gram + endospore formers

39. The different species of the genus Streptomycesare based upon

1. their different morphologies
2. their antigenic differences
3. the type of antibiotic which each produces
4. gram characteristics
5. the wall composition

40. The Mycetacea (fungi)

1. are procaryotic
2. contain chlorophyll
3. obtain their nutrition of absorption or organic matter
4. ingest organic matter
5. more than one of the is the

41. The mycelium is composed of

1. spores
2. hyphae
3. thallus
4. peptidoglycan
5. none of the above

42. The asexual spore of fungi which is formed by disjointing and transformation of hyphal cells is the

1. sporangiospore
2. conidiospore
3. arthrospore
4. chlamydspore
5. endospore

43. Asexual spores formed by budding in the fungi are termed

1. conidiospore
2. blastospores
3. arthrospores
4. chlamydospores
5. sporangiospores

44. During sexual reproduction in the fungi, fusion of the haploid nuclei is referred to as

1. plasmogamy
2. karyogamy
3. meiosis
4. zygosis
5. mitosis

45. Sexual spores that form inside of a sac are known as

1. basidiospores
2. zygospores
3. basidiospores
4. arthrospores
5. blastospores

46. The primitive aquatic fungi which produce flagellated cells belong to the phylum

1. Gymnomycota
2. Mastigomycota
3. Amastigomycota
4. Zygomycetes
5. Basidiomycetes

47. The class of fungi which contain forms in which no sexual phase has been discovered are the

1. zygomyctes
2. ascomycetes
3. basidiomycetes
4. deuteromycetes
5. none of the above

48. Fungi play significant roles I

1. decomposition
2. pathogenicity
3. symbiotic associations
4. industrial processes
5. more than one of the above is correct

49. The photosynthetic protists are important because

1. they contain many pathogenic species
2. they help maintain the temperature of the earth’s surface
3. they are responsible for the majority of the oxygen in the atmosphere
4. they produce large quantities of oil
5. none of the above

50. The phylum of protozoa that move by means of pseudopods are the

1. mastigophora
2. ciliophora
3. sporozoa
4. sarcodina
5. more than one of the above is correct

51. Giardia, Trypanosoma, and, Trichomonas, all belong to the phylum

1. sarcodina
2. mastigophora
3. sporozoa
4. ciliophora
5. zygomycetes

52. The phylum of protozoa which contains no known pathogens is the

1. sarcodina
2. mastigophora
3. sporozoa
4. ciliophora
5. zygomycetes

53. Viruses are not included in the five kingdoms of life because

1. they are too small
2. they contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
3. they are obligate intracellular parasites
4. they have no cellular organization
5. more than one of the above is correct

54. The nucleic acid of a virus may be

1. single stranded
2. double stranded
3. RNA
4. DNA
5. More than one of the above is correct

55. Viruses generally are ______ in shape

1. round or square
2. elipsoid
3. helical or polyhedronal
4. tear drop shaped
5. cubical

56. The nucleic acid core of the virus is surrounded by a (an)

1. capsomere
2. envelope
3. capsid
4. cell wall
5. none of the above

57. Following entry into a host cell, the nest step in viral replication is

1. intracellular synthesis of virus components
2. liberation of progeny viruses
3. assembly of new virus particles
4. synthesis of enzymes needed for replication of viral nucleic acids
5. mitosis

58. Which of the following would not be used for culturing viruses?

1. a fertile egg
2. a plant
3. an animal
4. a bacterial cell
5. nutrient agar

59. A virus classified as R2 would contain

1. two kinds of nucleic acid
2. two kinds of RNA
3. double stranded RNA
4. double stranded DNA
5. single stranded RNA

60. Which of the following is a method used for classifying viruses?

1. disease caused
2. tissue attacked
3. mode of transmission
4. nucleic acid content
5. more than one of the above is correct

61. The reproductive strategy followed by a virus that incorporates with the bacterial chromosome is known as

1. slash and burn
2. lysogeny
3. rupture replication
4. escape
5. none of the above

62. The lipoprotein coat found surrounding many animal viruses comes from

1. viral synthesis
2. virally converted bacteria
3. the cell membrane of the previously infected animal cell
4. mycoplasmas
5. Gram-bacteria

63. Yellow fever is caused by a (an)

1. Picornavirus
2. Rhinovirus
3. Togavirus
4. Myxovirus
5. Retrovirus

64. Chicken pox is the result of a (an)

1. adenovirus
2. herpes virus
3. poxvirus
4. hepadnavirus
5. enterovirus

65. Naked animal viruses infect a host cell by

1. fusion of envelope with the cell membrane
2. insertion by a phage
3. phagocytosis by the host cell
4. transduction
5. circumduction

66. Reverse transcriptase is found in

1. DNA viruses
2. Normal RNA viruses
3. Retroviruses
4. Haustoria
5. None of the above

67. The type of virus that cannot become a provirus is a (an)

1. DNA virus
2. Normal RNA virus
3. Retrovirus
4. Herpes virus
5. Poxvirus

68. The advantage that UV microscopy has over standard brightfield methods is

1. the color rendition is superior
2. a greater field of view
3. UV light is easier on the eyes
4. The resolving power is much greater
5. More than one of the above is correct

69. To observe as much detail as possible in a live protozoan you would probably use the_____ microscope

1. brighfield
2. darkfield
3. phase contrast
4. UV
5. Electron

70. High magnification of surface details of a cell could be best accomplished by using the

1. darkfield microscope
2. phase contrast microscope
3. transmission electron microscope
4. scanning electron microscope
5. UV microscope

71. The contractile filaments which are part of the cytoskeleton are known as the

1. microfilaments
2. microtubules
3. intermediate filaments
4. dense filaments
5. elastic filaments

72. The flagella arrangement in bacteria whereby two tufts of flagella are found at either end of the cell is termed

1. lophotichous
2. amphitrichous
3. monotrichous
4. peritrichous
5. supertrichous

BIOLOGY 2420 -EXAM IB

CHOSE THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER

1. Microbiology can be best defined as the science that deals with

1. bacteria exclusively
2. multicellular organisms
3. organisms that require a microscope to be seen
4. only the fungi
5. protozoa and fungi only

2. In which of the following areas do microorganisms play a major role?

1. natural cycles
2. industrial microbiology
3. basic research
4. genetic engineering
5. more than one of the above is correct

3. Which of the following scientists performed experiments that seemed to suggest the spontaneous generation of microorganisms?

1. Redi
2. Needham
3. Spallazani
4. Schwann
5. Pasteur

4. The doctrine of spontaneous generation was important to the growth of microbiology as a science because

1. it demonstrated that microorganisms could be derived from nonliving matter
2. it demonstrated that microorganisms could not be derived from nonliving matter
3. it generated a great deal of study about microorganisms
4. scientist were able to disprove it using microorganisms
5. none of the above are correct

5. The two cofounders of the germ theory of disease were

1. Francastoro and Semmelweis
2. Needham and Schwann
3. Schroder and Von Dusch
4. Pasteur and Koch
5. Jenner and Lister

6. The two first pure bacterial culture was obtained by

1. Pasteur
2. Koch
3. Lister
4. Jenner
5. Metchnikoff

7. The first man to isolate a virus was

1. Erlich
2. Iwanowsky
3. Reed
4. Enders
5. Ross

8. The man that demonstrated that malaria was contracted by the bite of a mosquito was

1. Ross
2. Reed
3. Erlich
4. Enders
5. Pasteurs

9. Koch’s postulates did not include

1. specific organism must always be found with the disease
2. the disease organism must be isolated and grown in pure culture
3. the pure culture must induce the disease in a fresh animal
4. the organism must be recovered from the infected animal
5. the organism must always be a bacterium

10. The first chemotherapeutic agent against syphilis was discovered by

1. Erlich
2. Nuttal and Brodet
3. Reed
4. Pasteur
5. Loeffler

11. Procaryotic cells contain all of the following features except for

1. peptidoblycan in the cell wall
2. mesosomes
3. gas vacuoles
4. a single circular chromosome
5. 80s ribosomes

12. A viscous coating found outside of the cell wall in certain procaryotic cells best describes a (an)

1. flagellum
2. capsule
3. periplasmic space
4. plasma membrane
5. none of the above

13. Invaginations of the cell membrane found in most procaryotes are known as

1. capsules
2. flagella
3. mesosomes
4. endoplasmic reticula
5. periplasmic spaces

14. The cell wall functions primarily to

1. protect against osmotic shock
2. serve as a surface for reactions to occur on
3. inactivate hydrogen peroxide
4. absorb materials from the environment
5. more than one of the above is correct

15. This organelle functions to regulate the entry and exit of materials to and from the cell. It is the

1. cell wall
2. cell membrane
3. endoplasmic reticulum
4. nucleus
5. golgi body

16. These organelles serve as the sites of protein synthesis

1. nucleus
2. ribosomes
3. golgi body
4. endoplasmic reticulum
5. flagellum

17. In binary fission as occurs is procaryotes, the duplicated chromosomes attach themselves to

1. spindle fibers
2. centromeres
3. invaginations of the plasma membrane
4. cell walls
5. none of the above

18. The term schizogony best describes

1. binary fission
2. multiple fission
3. budding
4. sexual reproduction
5. conjugation

19. The process of syngamy involves

1. the fusion of two haploid cells
2. the fusion to diploid cells
3. conjugation
4. binary fission
5. none of the above

20. The science of the systematic arrangement of organisms into groups or categories is known as

1. classification
2. nomenclature
3. identification
4. taxonomy
5. none of the above

21. A phylum or division best describes a group of related

1. classes
2. orders
3. families
4. genera
5. species

22. Which of the following would be the correct way to write a generic name?

1. homo sapiens
2. HOMO SAPIENS
3. HOMO sapiens
4. Homo sapiens
5. homo Sapiens

23. Which of the following characteristics could be used in the classification of microorganisms?

1. morphology
2. cultural characteristics
3. metabolic characteristics
4. chemical composition
5. more than one of the above is correct

24. The basis for the 5 kingdoms of life is

1. cellular organization
2. nutritional requirements
3. cellular organization and nutritional requirements
4. cellular organization and cells size
5. cellular organization and motility

25. The kingdom that consists exclusively of procaryotic organisms is the

1. protista
2. monera
3. plants
4. animals
5. fungi

26. Gram positive bacteria, when compared to Gram negative bacteria

1. have a more complex chemical structure
2. contain more peptidoglycan in their in their walls
3. contain less peptidoglycan in their walls
4. are smaller
5. more than one of the above is correct

27. A bacterium that is seen to consist of chains of spheres would be termed a

1. staphylococcus
2. sarcina
3. diplococcus
4. streptococcus
5. bacillus

28. Volume I of Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteria includes

1. ordinary gram positive organisms
2. ordinary gram negative organism
3. unusual bacteria
4. filamentous bacteria of complex morphology
5. fungi

29. The spirochetes are characterized by

1. rigid cell walls
2. possession of a periplasmic flagellum
3. ease of culture in laboratory media
4. rod shape
5. more than one of the above is correct

30. Organisms which are straight or curved gram negative rods and which can grow either aerobically or anaerobically belong to the section

1. anaerobic, G-, straight curved, and helical rods
2. rickettsias and chlamydias
3. mycoplasmas
4. facultatively anaerobic G-rods
5. spirochetes

31. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the rickettsias?

1. they generate their own energy
2. they are minute, obligate intracellular parasites
3. they are associated with the blood vascular system in humans
4. they have a complex development cycle
5. they grow on non-living medium

32. The chlamydiales

1. can grow on artificial media
2. cannot produce energy (ATP)
3. are spread mainly by ticks and lice
4. do not posses a cell wall
5. none of the above

33. The mycopasma are unique among bacteria in that they

1. are not affected by penicillin
2. are gram negative parasites
3. do not possess a cell wall
4. do not possess a cell membrane
5. do not contain genetic material

34. The endospore forming bacteria are found in

1. Volume I
2. Volume II
3. Volume III
4. Volume IV
5. More than one of the above is correct

35. The section in Volume II which contains bacteria that produce a fungal growth pattern is the

1. Gram positive cocci
2. Mycobacteria
3. Nocardioforms
4. Nonspore forming gram positive rods
5. None of the above

36. The evidence that the archaebacteria represents a second procaryotic kingdom includes all of the following except

1. absence of peptidoglycan
2. chemically different lipids in the cell membranes
3. difference sequences of nucleotides in the ribosomal RNA
4. unique enzymes and coenzymes
5. absence of DNA as the genetic material

37. Volume IV contains organisms of medical significance because

1. most of them are highly pathogenic
2. they resemble microscopic fungi
3. many of them produce antibiotics
4. the genus streptomyces contains more species than any other bacterial genus
5. none of the above are correct

38. The vegetative body of a mould is termed a (an)

1. hypha
2. mycelium
3. ancospore
4. haustoria
5. sporophore

39. The single celled form of a fungus is termed a (an)

1. yeast
2. mycelium
3. ancospore
4. mould
5. none of the above

40. A non-motile sporangiospore is termed a (an)

1. zoospore
2. aplanospore
3. arthrospore
4. chlamydospore
5. conidioospore

41. Fungi reproduce asexually by

1. budding
2. fragmentation
3. spores
4. conidia
5. more than one of the above is correct

42. The spores that are formed naked on the tips of modified hyphae are known as

1. zoospores
2. arthrospores
3. conidia
4. chlamydospores
5. blastospores

43. During sexual reproduction in the fungi, the sequence of events is

1. Plasmogamy, meiosis, karyogamy
2. Karyogamy, meiosis, plasmogamy
3. Karyogamy, plasmogamy, meiosis
4. Meiosis, plasmogamy, karyogamy
5. Plasmogamy, karyogamy, meiosis

44. Which of the following is not a sexually produced spore in the fungi?

1. zygospore
2. basidiospore
3. ascospore
4. blastospore
5. all are sexually produced spores

45. The division Gymnomycota of the fungi includes the

1. aquatic fungi
2. terrestrial fungi without flagella
3. slime moulds
4. sac fungi
5. mushrooms

46. The primitive aquatic fungi are found in the division

1. Gymnomycota
2. Mastigomycota
3. Amastigomycota
4. Zygomycetes
5. Ascomycetes

47. The asexual spores of the Ascomycetes are

1. ascospores
2. sporangiospores
3. basidiospores
4. conidia
5. aplanospores

48. The toad stools, mushrooms, bracket fungi, smuts, and jelly fungi are found in the class

1. zygomycetes
2. ascomycetes
3. basidiomycetes
4. deuteromycetes
5. mastigomycota

49. In which of the following do the fungi play a significant role?

1. decomposition
2. symbiotic associations
3. industrial production
4. disease
5. more than one of the above is correct

50. The phylum of protozoa that move by means of flagella are the

1. ciliophora
2. mastigophora
3. sarcodina
4. sporozoa
5. deuteromycetes

51. The phylum of protozoa that are completely parasitic are the

1. ciliophora
2. mastigophora
3. sarcodina
4. sporozoa
5. deuteromycetes

52. The protozoa are important because they

1. are important links in the food chain
2. maintain ecology of the wetlands
3. degrade sewage
4. cause disease
5. more than one of the above is correct

53. Viruses are not considered to belong to any of the 5 kingdoms of life because

1. they are very small
2. they cannot generate their own energy
3. they are acellular
4. none can produce outside of other cells
5. more than one of the above is correct

54. Viruses

1. may contain DNA or RNA, but not both
2. may contain either single or double stranded nucleic acids
3. lack all machinery for energy production and protein synthesis
4. are all obligate intracellular parasites
5. more than one of the above is correct

55. The two major morphologies found among the viruses are

1. Cylindrical and spherical
2. Helical and polyhedron
3. Cubic and spherical
4. Linear and cubic
5. None of the above is correct

56. The coat that surrounds the nucleic acid of a virus is the

1. capsomere
2. capsid
3. virion
4. phage
5. envelope

57. The third phase of viral replication is

1. liberation of progeny virus
2. infection and adsorption
3. synthesis or replicative enzymes
4. intracellular synthesis of virus components
5. assembly of new virus particles

58. Which of the following methods would not be suitable for the cultivation of viruses?

1. fertile eggs
2. tissue culture of human cells
3. tissue culture of animal cells
4. experimental plants
5. non-living microbiological media

59. A virus classified as a D2 type would contain

1. single stranded DNA
2. double stranded DNA
3. single stranded RNA
4. double stranded RNA
5. none of the above

60. The incorporation of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell chromosome and its subsequent replication along with the host cell is termed

1. lysis
2. lysogeny
3. viral conversion
4. cryptoreplication
5. none of the above

61. When a bacterial cell contains a provirus it frequently

1. expresses new traits such as toxin production
2. is destroyed
3. becomes weakened
4. fails to divide
5. divides uncontrollably

62. The lipoprotein coat which surrounds many animal viruses is derived from

1. special viral genes
2. the previous host cell
3. special genes within the animal cell which it infected
4. materials derived from the external environment
5. none of the above

63. Chicken pox and fever blisters are caused by the

1. pox virus
2. hepadnavirus
3. herpes virus
4. adenovirus
5. rhinoviruses

64. Which of the following is an RNA virus

1. pox virus
2. hepadavirus
3. herpes virus
4. adenovirus
5. rhinoviruses

65. The viruses which contain reverse transcriptase are the

1. togaviruses
2. rhabdovirus
3. rotavirus
4. retroviruses
5. myxoviruses

66. Rabies is caused by the

1. togavirus
2. myxovirus
3. rotavirus
4. rhabdovirus
5. retrovirus

67. Naked animal viruses are adsorbed into the host cell by

1. phagocytosis
2. fusion of their envelope with the host cell membrane
3. penetration enzymes
4. pinocytosis
5. more than one of the above is correct

68. Which of the following viruses cannot become a provirus

1. DNA virus
2. Normal RNA virus
3. Retrovirus
4. Sll can become a provirus

69. In the retroviruses, replication involves

1. copying of the viral DNA directly into new DNA
2. copying of the viral RNA directly into new RNA
3. copying of the viral RNA into DNA
4. copying of the viral DNA into RNA
5. none of the above

70. In order to observe as much detail as possible in living, unstained organisms, you would probably utilize a

1. brightfield microscope
2. darkfield microscope
3. phase contrast microscope
4. TEM
5. SEM

71. To observe highly detailed images of surfaces structures on microorganisms, you would utilize the

1. brightfield microscope
2. darkfield microscope
3. phase contrast microscope
4. TEM
5. SEM

72. A bacterium that exhibited amphitrichous flagellation would have

1. a single flagellum
2. tufts of flagella at both ends of the cell
3. flagella over the entire surface
4. two or more flagella at one pole
5. a row of flagella around the midline of the cell

73. That component of the cytoskeleton that is involved in movement is the

1. microfilament
2. microtubule
3. endoplasmic reticulum
4. Golgi body
5. Ribosome

74. Which of the following is a larval stage of the trematodes?

1. miracidia
2. redia
3. cercaria
4. metacercaria
5. more than one of the above is correct

75. The helminths are

1. procaryotes
2. protozoa
3. fungi
4. invertabrate animals
5. protista