MICROBIOLOGY 2420

EXAMINATION III

CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER

  1. Destruction of pathogenic organisms, especially on inanimate objects best defines
  1. sterilization
  2. antisepsis
  3. disinfection
  4. bacteriostasis
  5. none of the above
  1. Which of the following is not a means of inhibition?
  1. low temperature
  2. high osmotic pressure
  3. removal
  4. drying out
  5. bacteriostatic drugs
  1. Destruction of microorganisms can be accomplished by
  1. fire
  2. hot ovens
  3. chemical agents
  4. radiation
  5. all of the above
  1. When choosing a disinfectant or other control method it is necessary to take into account whether the organism
  1. produces spores
  2. is present in great numbers
  3. possesses a waxy or gelatinous sheath
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. A good control agent should
  1. not be highly toxic to humans
  2. be cheap
  3. be easy to apply
  4. control the target organism
  5. all of the above
  1. Which of the following factors effect the interaction of the control agent and organism?
  1. temperature
  2. pH
  3. time
  4. contact
  5. all of the above
  1. You would probably sterilize soiled bandages by
  1. heating in an oven
  2. autoclave
  3. chemicals
  4. radiation
  5. incineration
  1. Boiling water is an excellent disinfectant but cannot be relied upon for sterilization. The reason for this is that
  1. it will not kill encapsulated organisms
  2. it will not kill endospores
  3. it will not kill vegetative cells
  4. it will not kill staph organisms
  5. all of the above
  1. The process by which something may be sterilized by exposing it to boiling water on three successive days is known as
  1. autoclaving
  2. tyndalization
  3. pasteurization
  4. Von Hoff’s process
  5. None of the above
  1. To assure sterilization, compressed steam must reach a temperature of
  1. 100 C
  2. 111 C
  3. 121 C
  4. 149 C
  5. 500 C
  1. Which of the following radiations can be used for sterilization?
  1. gamma rays
  2. X-rays
  3. UV
  4. Cathods rays
  5. All of the above
  1. The great advantage of Beta-Propiolaction (BPL) is that
  1. it is cheap
  2. it requires a special autoclave
  3. it can be used to sterilize entire rooms
  4. it requires high humidity
  5. all of the above
  1. A serum for injection which could not be sterilized by heat or chemicals might be sterilized effectively by
  1. aging
  2. filtration
  3. tyndilization
  4. autoclaving
  5. treating with ethylene oxide
  1. Chlorine gas would most likely be used to disinfect a (an)
  1. municipal swimming pool
  2. surgical instruments
  3. grown
  4. operating room
  5. none of the above
  1. Common laundry bleach is an excellent disinfectant. It consists of a solution of
  1. calcium hypochlorite
  2. sodium hypochlorite
  3. chlorine gas
  4. organic chlorine
  5. none of the above
  1. Silver nitrate has been used extensively
  1. as a systemic disinfectant
  2. in injectable form
  3. as an eyewash for newborns to prevent gonorrhea
  4. for puncture wounds
  5. none of the above
  1. Alcohols are used for
  1. thermometer disinfection
  2. instrument sterilization
  3. vaccine disinfection
  4. floor disinfection
  5. none of the above
  1. Which of the following is not a phenol compound or derivative?
  1. cresol
  2. hexylesorcinol
  3. bis-phenol
  4. carbolic acid
  5. glucaraldehyde
  1. A good example of an oxidazing agent which serves as a disinfectant would be
  1. cresol
  2. hexylresorcinol
  3. formaldehyde
  4. hydrogen peroxide
  5. nitric acid
  1. The major disadvantage of the aldehydes as skin disinfectants would be
  1. their high price
  2. their lack of effectiveness
  3. their high toxicity for human tissues
  4. their difficulty of application
  5. none of the above
  1. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (QUATS)
  1. are good disinfectants
  2. are good surface tension reducers
  3. have low toxicity for human tissues
  4. are effective in high dilutions
  5. all of the above
  1. Dyes are used
  1. as antimicrobial agents in microbial media
  2. as antifungal agents
  3. as injectable antimicrobial agents
  4. a and b
  5. a and c
  1. A given disinfectant is found to have at a dilution of 1:45 the same killing power as phenol diluted to 1:90. What would be the phenol coefficient of this disinfectant?
  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. .5
  4. 5.0
  5. none of the above
  1. The major weakness with disinfectant comparison testing is
  1. use of only one or a few organisms for test purposes
  2. conditions which are seldom similar to those of hospitals or clinics
  3. bias on the part of the test personnel
  4. a and b
  5. none of the above
  1. Inhibition of growth of microorganisms in food materials may be accomplished by
  1. drying
  2. adding heavy sugar solutions
  3. adding vinegar
  4. refrigeration
  5. all of the above
  1. Sulfanilamide is inhibitory to bacterial growth because
  1. it will substitute for PABA
  2. it prevents folic acid synthesis
  3. it prevents the operation of an essential enzyme
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. The sulfonamides were considered "wonder" drugs when first discovered in the thirties. Today they have lost much of their effectiveness. This is due to
  1. more effective antibiotics have been discovered in molds
  2. the bacterial species which they were effective against have disappeared due to their use
  3. widespread use has led to evolutionary selection of mutant forms which are resistant to theses drugs
  4. they have been superceded by much cheaper drugs
  5. all of the above
  1. A chemotheraputic drug which is now, or was in the past, obtained from a living organism is termed
  1. sulfonamides
  2. antibiotic
  3. antimicrobial agent
  4. anmtibacterial
  5. all of the above
  1. Penicillin is usually effective against
  1. Gram-positive bacteria
  2. Gram-negative bacteria
  3. Both positive and negative bacteria
  4. Viruses
  5. Fungi and Gram-negative bacteria
  1. Tetracyclines are effective against
  1. Gram-positive bacteria
  2. Gram-negative bacteria
  3. Both Gram-positive and negative bacteria
  4. Viruses and fungi
  5. Viruses and Gram-positive bacteria
  1. Improper use of antibiotics can lead to
  1. toxic effects on humans
  2. evolution of antibiotic resistant strains
  3. death
  4. severe disruption of the normal body flora
  5. all of the above
  1. The invasion and growth of an organism in the body best defines
  1. disease
  2. infection
  3. pathology
  4. virulence
  5. all of the above
  1. An organism may be highly virulent if
  1. it is very aggressive
  2. it produces a powerful toxin
  3. it is antibiotic resistant
  4. it is sulfa drug resistant
  5. a and b only
  1. The virulence of an organism may be decreased by
  1. growing it in unfavorable media
  2. passing through a succession of hosts
  3. use of antibiotics
  4. a and b
  5. a and c
  1. Antibodies (immunoglobins) are formed by
  1. erythrocytes
  2. neutrophils
  3. monocytes
  4. eusinophils
  5. none of the above
  1. The most abundant leukocyte in the body is the
  1. neutrophil
  2. basophil
  3. monocyte
  4. erythrocyte
  5. none of the above
  1. A macrophage which is fixed to the tissues is referred to as a
  1. neutrophil
  2. monocyte
  3. mast cell
  4. histiocyte
  5. none of the above
  1. The RE system
  1. consist of a series of vascular channels which are lined by phagocytic cells
  2. is primarily responsible for purification of the blood and lymph
  3. is effective against both microorganisms and other debri
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. The first line of defense against microbial invasions is
  1. the intact skin and mucous membranes
  2. phagocytic cells
  3. interferon
  4. antibody
  5. T-cells
  1. Human beings can be infected by small pox but dogs cannot. For the dog this is an example of
  1. interferon
  2. antibody immunity
  3. humoral mediate immunity
  4. cell mediated immunity
  5. none of the above
  1. The skin protects against pathogens by
  1. forming an intact barrier
  2. secreting acids which reduce pH and make life difficult for pathogens
  3. secreting lysozyme
  4. providing growth areas for normal skin flore which "autocompete" the pathogens
  5. all of the above
  1. Interferon
  1. is produced by body cells when invaded by viruses
  2. causes the production of antiviral chemicals by surrounding cells
  3. is non-specific viruses
  4. protects against viruses
  5. all of the above
  1. Properdin
  1. requires the presence of antibody in order initiate complement fixation
  2. is highly specific in its response
  3. initiates the fixation of complement in the absence of antibody
  4. is the beginning point for the classical pathway of complement fixation
  5. all of the above
  1. Which of the following is not a component of the inflammatory response?
  1. increased blood flow
  2. increased capillary filtration (edema, awelling)
  3. aggregation of phagocytic cells
  4. production of antibody
  5. increased temperature in the inflamed area
  1. That component of specific immunity which relays exclusively upon cells for the specific response is known as
  1. humoral mediated immunity
  2. cell mediate immunity
  3. interferon mediated immunity
  4. complement
  5. phagocytosis
  1. Before a good immune response can be mounted by either B-cells or T-cells to an antigen
  1. the antigen must be immobilized by antibody
  2. the antigen must be processed and presented to B-cells by macrophages
  3. the antigen must be processed and presented to T-cells by macrophages
  4. the antigen must be processed and presented to T-cells by B-cells
  5. none of the above
  1. Which of the following is not a class of immunoglobulin?
  1. IgG
  2. IgM
  3. IgD
  4. IgE
  5. IgB
  1. Opsonization occurs when
  1. antibodies coat cells making them more readily phagocytized
  2. antibodies immobilize motile cells
  3. antibodies react with complement
  4. antibodies neutralize viruses
  5. all of the above
  1. The fixation of complement is a major mechanism of the immune response when this occurs
  1. bacteria are lysed
  2. immune adherence of foreign cells to phagocytes takes place
  3. an inflammatory response may be initiated
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. Antibodies can function by
  1. neutralizing viruses
  2. precipitating soluble antigen
  3. fixing complement
  4. agglutinating cells
  5. all of the above
  1. Cell mediated immunity is principally a function of
  1. B-cells
  2. Plasma cells
  3. T-cells
  4. Complement
  5. All of the above
  1. Which of the following agents is not released during a CMI response?
  1. interferon
  2. phagocyte immobilizing factors
  3. phagocyte attracting factors
  4. antibodies
  1. The ability of the immune system to recognize and ignore your own body cells and chemicals is termed
  1. immune adherence
  2. recognition
  3. tolerance
  4. anaphylaxsis
  5. none of the above
  1. Natural immunity is obtained by
  1. vaccination with the infectious organism
  2. a normal encounter with the organism in the environment
  3. eating only natural foods
  4. avoiding unnatural situations
  5. none of the above
  1. A vaccine may be prepared using
  1. live, virulent organisms
  2. active toxins
  3. dead organisms
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. Many common infections seem to run about 2 weeks before disappearing. The reason for this is
  1. the secondary response was slow in occurring
  2. the secondary response was too weak
  3. it takes the body about that long to mount a full immune attack when meeting an organism for the first time
  4. it takes the body about that long to mount a full immune response when meeting an organism for the 2nd or 3rd time
  5. none of the above
  1. A case of natural passive immunity occurs when
  1. vaccinations are given
  2. antibo\dy is injected against a particular antigen
  3. antibodies are given prior to exposure to an infectious disease
  4. mothers given antibody to fetus
  5. all of the above
  1. Mast cells play a major role in immediate hypersensitivity because they
  1. bind antibody E
  2. immobilize phagocytes
  3. attract phagocytes
  4. release chemical agents which are responsible for the body manifestation of the response
  5. all of the above
  1. Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by
  1. HMI
  2. CMI
  3. Both HMI & CMI
  4. Mast cells
  5. None of the above
  1. The tuberculin test
  1. requires that antigen of tuberculosis causing organisms be rubbed into the skin
  2. will show a miner inflammatory response if positive
  3. is regulated by CMI
  4. demonstrates that population of lymphocytes exist which "know" the tuberculosis organism
  5. all of the above