Bio2401: Anatomy & Physiology 1 - EXAM 1A

(30 pages total)

SELECT THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER

1. The subdivision of anatomy that deals with structures that can be seen with the naked eye is

1. Histology
2. cytology
3. gross
4. microscopic
5. ultrastructure

2. The non-invasive anatomical technique which utilizes a powerful magnetic field is

1. X-ray
2. DSR
3. CAT
4. MRI
5. DSO

3. The study of function best defines

1. gross anatomy
2. cytology
3. histology
4. ultrastructure
5. physiology

4. The characteristic that all living things exhibit that involves the sum total of all of their chemical reactions is

1. irritability
2. growth
3. metabolism
4. reproduction
5. none of the above

5. The next level or organization with immediately follows the cellular level is

1. organ level
2. organ systems level
3. molecular level
4. tissue level
5. none of the above

6. The ability of an organism to maintain a constant internal environment in spite of a changing external environment best defines

1. physiology
2. anatomy
3. ultrastructure
4. tomography
5. none of the above

7. In a negative feedback control system

1. part of the input feeds to the output thereby reducing it
2. part of the input feeds to the output thereby increasing it
3. part of the output feeds back to the input thereby increasing the output
4. part of the output feeds back to the input thereby decreasing the output
5. increasing output results in increasing input

8. A substance which is composed of only one kind of atom defines a (an)

1. molecule
2. proton
3. nucleus
4. element
5. isotope

9. The atomic weights of nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen are 14, 16, and 1 respectively. The molecular weight of ammonium hydroxide, NH4OH would be

1. 25
2. 30
3. 35
4. 50
5. 70

10. A substance which will conduct electricity when dissolved in water is known as a (an)

1. electrolyte
2. isotope
3. element
4. non-polar bond
5. more than one of the above is correct

11. Atoms that have identical chemical properties but differing atomic weights are known as

1. neutrons
2. ions
3. electrolytes
4. isotopes
5. none of the above

12. Dissociation is the process by which a molecule

1. dissolves in water
2. breaks up in water to form ions
3. gives up a neutron to form a radioactive isotope
4. forms a covalent bond
5. none of the above

13. A substance which yields a hydrogen ion in solution is termed a (an)

1. base
2. isotope
3. ion
4. acid
5. electrolyte

14. Covalent bonds form when

1. an electron is transferred from one atom to another
2. a pair of electrons is shared between two atoms
3. hydrogen is electrically attracted to oxygen or nitrogen
4. neutrons are lost from two or more atoms
5. dissociation occurs in solution

15. Molecules that have polar covalent bonds

1. can never dissociate
2. have a positive and a negative pole
3. are formed by the transfer of an electron from one atom to another
4. always contain oxygen
5. more than one of the above is correct

16. Hydrogen bonds are significant to living things because they

1. bond atoms together to form molecules
2. form only between water molecules
3. give three dimensional shape to large organic molecules
4. form between hydrogen and carbon
5. more than one of the above is correct

17. An atom that gains an extra electron would form a (an)

1. positive ion
2. negative ion
3. isotope
4. hydrogen bond
5. covalent bond

18. Increasing the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution would

1. decrease the pH
2. increase the pH
3. decrease the acidity
4. increase the alkalinity
5. more than one of the above is correct

19. The maintenance of pH homeostasis is critically important to living things because

1. decreasing pH increasing acidity
2. increasing pH decreasing alkalinity
3. altering pH means altered hydrogen ion concentration
4. all biochemical reactions are pH sensitive
5. more than one of the above is correct

20. A substance that when added to a solution resists a change in pH best defines a (an)

1. buffer
2. electrolyte
3. acid
4. base
5. salt

21. The element carbon makes possible the large organic molecules of life because of its ability to

1. form bonds with hydrogen
2. form bonds with oxygen and nitrogen
3. bond with itself to form long chains
4. ionize
5. more than one of the above is correct

22. Radioactive isotopes are used in

1. diagnosis
2. research
3. therapy
4. PET
5. more than one of the above is correct

23. One product of dehydration synthesis is always a molecule of

1. lipid
2. polysaccharide
3. nucleic acid
4. water
5. more than one of the above is correct

24. The addition of water across a bond which results in the breaking of that bond best defines

1. condensation
2. dehydration synthesis
3. hydrogen bonding
4. hydrolysis
5. none of the above

25. Carbohydrates are composed of

1. carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen
2. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
3. carbon and hydrogen
4. carbon, hydrogen, and sulfur
5. carbon, oxygen, and phosphorous

26. The principal fuel molecules for cells belong to the

1. lipids
2. carbohydrates
3. proteins
4. nucleic acids
5. hydrocarbons

27. An example of a monosaccharide would be

1. sucrose
2. starch
3. glucose
4. glycogen
5. cellulose

28. Lipids function as

1. components of a cell membranes
2. fuel storage molecules
3. hormones
4. prostaglandin
5. more than one of the above is correct

29. The fundamental property that holds all of the lipids together as a group is

1. their atomic composition
2. the presence of glycerol in all of the molecules
3. the presence of fatty acids
4. their solubility properties
5. more than one of the above is correct

30. The peptide bond of proteins forms between

1. carbon and oxygen
2. nitrogen and hydrogen
3. nitrogen and oxygen
4. carbon and nitrogen
5. none of the above

31. The monomers or proteins are

1. amino acids
2. fatty acids
3. monosaccharide
4. nucleotides
5. disaccharides

32. Tertiary structure of proteins is significant because it

1. represents the sequence of amino acids
2. results from hydrogen bonding between the alpha carboxyl oxygen and the alpha amino hydrogen
3. is exceedingly complex
4. is responsible for the biological activity of the protein
5. consists of multiple polypeptide chains

33. The three dimensional shape of a protein molecule can be altered by

1. temperature
2. salt concentration
3. pH
4. water concentration
5. more than one of the above is correct

34. Enzymes are

1. protein molecules
2. lipid molecules
3. carbohydrate molecules
4. nucleic acids none of the above
5. none of the above

35. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by

1. becoming transformed during the reaction
2. increasing the free energy of the reaction
3. decreasing the free energy of the reaction
4. lowering the energy of activation
5. increasing the energy of activation

36. The part of the enzyme the actually handles the substrate molecules is the

1. Active site
2. Secondary site
3. Primary structure
4. Carboxyl group
5. Amino group

37. Most coenzymes are

1. proteins
2. sites of catalysts
3. metal ions
4. derived from vitamins
5. not necessary for enzyme activity

38. If you take 15 grams of salt and add enough H2O to make 100 ml of solution you would have a ___ % solution.

1. 0.15
2. 1.5
3. 15.
4. 150
5. can not be determined from the information given

39. The molecular weight of glucose is 180. A 0.1 molar solution would be obtained by adding ____ grams of glucose to enough water to make one liter of solution.

1. 180
2. 18
3. 1.8
4. 1088
5. 20

40. "All living things are composed of cells and/or cell products" is the basic idea of the

1. theory of evolution
2. theory of relativity
3. cell theory
4. Copernican theory
5. More than one of the above is correct

41. The continuous portion of the cell membrane is composed of

1. a protein bilayer
2. glycoprotiens
3. lipopolysaccharides
4. a lipid bilayer
5. negative ions

42. The components of the cytoskeleton which function in the movement of organelles within the cell are the

1. microfilaments
2. microtubles
3. intermediate filaments
4. actin filaments
5. myosin filaments

43. The organelles which serves as a site for the synthesis of protein, fatty acids, and steroids is the

1. mitochondria
2. centriole
3. lysosome
4. perioxsome
5. none of the above

44. The organelles which functions in packaging cell secretions is the

1. endoplasmic reticulum
2. peroxisome
3. Golgi body
4. Mitochondria
5. Centriole

45. The organelle which is the site of energy production is the

1. ribosome
2. mitochondria
3. lysosome
4. peroxisome
5. basal body

46. Ribosomes are synthesized by the

1. nucleus
2. nucleolus
3. endoplasmic reticulum
4. basal body
5. Golgi body

47. The component of the chromosome that contains the genetic blueprint is the

1. protein
2. DNA
3. RNA
4. Cytoplasm
5. None of the above

48. Water moves into and out of cells by means of

1. active transport
2. filtration
3. osmosis
4. diffusion
5. endocytosis

49. Nonpolar molecules will generally diffuse through the cell membrane with little difficulty because

1. the bulk of the membrane is composed of nonpolar protein
2. the bulk of the membrane is composed of polar protein
3. nonpolar lipid molecules make up the continuous phase of the membrane
4. glycoproteins are found on the surface of the membrane
5. integral proteins from channels through which they can move

50. A cell placed into a hypotonic solution will

1. remain unchanged in size and shape
2. swell and burst
3. shrivel up
4. increase its metabolic rate
5. decrease its metabolic rate

51. During receptor mediated endocytosis, endosomes fuse to form

1. ligands
2. receptors
3. vesicles
4. CURLs
5. WAVEs

52. The ultimate source of energy for our bodies is

1. carbohydrates
2. glucose
3. fats
4. proteins
5. the sun

53. The amount of disorder in a system best defines

1. energy
2. entropy
3. enthalpy
4. empathy
5. none of the above

54. An example of a high entropy system would be a

1. cell
2. virus
3. computer
4. cloud of gas
5. bacterium

55. The gain of electrons by an atom or molecule best defines

1. oxidation
2. reduction
3. hydrolysis
4. dehydration
5. ionization

56. Most biological oxidations involve

1. the loss of oxygen
2. the gain of oxygen
3. the loss of hydrogen
4. the gain of hydrogen
5. none of the above

57. Cells use the energy released by oxidation-reduction reactions to do all of the following except

1. synthesize protein
2. synthesize fats
3. breakdown ATP
4. build dehydration bonds
5. duplicate cells

58. ATP is derived from ADP by adding an inorganic phosphate group and

1. a nucleotide
2. a sugar
3. an amino acid
4. a fatty acid
5. energy

59. Glycolisis begins with glucose and ends with

1. carbon dioxide
2. water
3. pyruvic acid
4. acetyl CoA
5. citric acid

60. The major hydrogen acceptor during the Krebs cycle is

1. Coenzyme A
2. FAD
3. NAD
4. Oxygen
5. STP

61. During the Krebs cycle, oxaloacetic acid combines with acetyl CoA to form

1. alpha keto-glutaric acid
2. NAD
3. Citric acid
4. ATP
5. FAD

62. The complete oxidation of acetyl CoA in the krebs cycle will produce ______ NADH2 molecules

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

63. For every pair of electrons that passes completely through the electron transport system, ________ ATP will be produced

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

64. In the absence of oxygen, pyruvic acid will be converted into

1. acetyl CoA
2. citric acid
3. lactic acid
4. glucose
5. starch

65. The process by which fatty acids are converted into acetyl CoA is known as

1. glycolysis
2. deamination
3. transamination
4. beta oxidation
5. alpha keto-glutaric acid

66. Which of the following nucleotides is not found in DNA/

1. adenine
2. guanine
3. cytosine
4. uracil
5. thymine

67. A single strand of DNA has the following base sequence A-C-C-G. The complimentary strand would have which of the following base sequences?

1. A-C-C-G
2. T-G-G-A
3. T-G-G-T
4. T-G-G-C
5. G-C-C-G

68. RNA differs form DNA in that RNA

1. is single stranded
2. is a much smaller molecule
3. contains the base uracil instead of thymine
4. it contains the sugar ribose instead of deoxyribose
5. more than one of the above is correct

69. RNA is synthesize from

1. protein molecules
2. other RNA molecules
3. DNA
4. Deoxyribose nucleotides
5. None of the above

70. The nucleotide sequence CCCGGGCCC in a DNA molecule would code for _________ amino acids

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 6
5. 9

71. The anticodon is found in

1. DNA
2. MRNA
3. RRNA
4. TRNA
5. Protein

72. Each ribosome has _____ binding sites for tRNA

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

73. The anticodon of the triplet code word AAA would be

1. TTT
2. AAA
3. CCC
4. GGG
5. UUU

74. The correct sequence of information flow in protein synthesis is

1. DNA-TRNA-MRNA-protein
2. MRNA-TRNA-DNA-protein
3. DNA-MRNA-protein-TRNA
4. DNA-MRNA-TRNA-protein
5. DNA-protein-MRNA-TRNA

75. Migration of the centrioles occurs during the ______ phase of mitosis

1. prophase
2. anaphase
3. telophase
4. metaphase
5. interphase

76. Duplication of the DNA occurs during the ______ phase of mitosis

1. prophase
2. metaphase
3. anaphase
4. telophase
5. interphase

77. The events of telophase are essentially the opposite of those of

1. prophase
2. metaphase
3. anaphase
4. interphase
5. none of the above

78. The study of cancer is termed

1. oncology
2. cancerology
3. neoplasmogeny
4. malignancy
5. none of the above

79. The rise of secondary tumors from an initial, primary tumor is known as

1. neoplasm
2. angiogenin
3. metastasis
4. malignancy
5. contact inhibition

80. A cancer that arises in connective tissues is termed a (an)

1. carcinoma
2. adenosarcoma
3. sarcoma
4. myeloma
5. lymphoma

BIOLOGY 2401 - EXAM 1B

1. The study of the cells and cell structure is known as

1. histology
2. cytology
3. tomography
4. gross anatomy
5. radiographic

2. CAT scan

1. is the abbreviation of Computer Assisted Tomography
2. utilizes a rotating x-ray tube
3. is used principally for diagnosing disorder
4. makes use of a computer coordination
5. more than one of the above is correct

3. The study of function best defines

1. histology
2. cytology
3. gross anatomy
4. ultrastructure
5. none of the above

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of life

1. irritability
2. adaptability
3. O2 consumption
4. Metabolism
5. Reproduction

5. Which of the following levels of organization is not included in the tissue level

1. cells
2. atoms
3. molecules
4. organs
5. subatomic particles

6. The ability of a living organism to maintain a constant internal environment in spite of a changing external environment is know as

1. adaptability
2. irritability
3. growth
4. homeostasis
5. none of the above

7. In negative feedback

1. part of the output of a system feedback to the input and causes it to increase
2. part of the output of a system fails to feedback to the input
3. part of the output of a system feedback to the input and causes it to decrease
4. the output and input are unrelated
5. more than one of the above is correct

8. The smallest part of an element which still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element is a (n)

1. proton
2. molecule
3. atom
4. base
5. neutron

9. The subatomic particle which has a positive electrical charge is a(n)

1. neutron
2. electron
3. atom
4. proton
5. freon

10. The breaking up of a neutral molecule in H2O to form ions is termed

1. electrolyte
2. dissociation
3. homeostasis
4. tomography
5. dissolving

11. Atoms with identical chemical properties but differing atomic weights best defines

1. ions
2. electrolytes
3. isotopes
4. protons
5. elements

12. The atomic weight of Carbon is 12 and is 16 for Oxygen. The molecular weight of CO2 would be

1. 44
2. 28
3. 32
4. 24
5. 60

13. The sharing of a pair of electrons by 2 atoms forms a

1. hydrogen bond
2. ionic bond
3. coordination bond
4. covalent bond
5. saving bond

14. Two atoms form a molecule by sharing a pair of electrons. One atom pulls the electrons closer to itself. The result is the production of a

1. polar molecule
2. nonpolar molecule
3. ion
4. electrolyte
5. isotope

15. The hydrogen bond is formed between

1. hydrogen and hydrogen
2. hydrogen and oxygen
3. hydrogen and nitrogen
4. hydrogen and carbon
5. both B and C are correct

16. The formation of an ionic bond involves

1. sharing of a pair of electrons
2. sharing of two pairs of electrons
3. the transfer of an electron from one atom to another
4. electrical attraction between hydrogen and oxygen
5. none of the above

17. An atom which loses an electron would become a (n)

1. isotope
2. negative ion
3. positive ion
4. proton
5. neutron

18. Which of the following solutions would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions?

1. pH 3
2. pH 4
3. pH 5
4. pH 6
5. pH 7

19. An increase in alkalinity would result in a _____ in hydrogen ion concentration.

1. increase
2. decrease

20. Radioactive isotopes are useful in

1. research
2. diagnosis of disease
3. therapy
4. cytology
5. more than one is correct

21. The property of carbon which makes it the central atom for all organic compounds is its ability to bond to

1. Oxygen atoms
2. Hydrogen atoms
3. Sulfur atoms
4. Nitrogen atoms
5. Other carbon atoms

22. A large molecule which is made up of repeating subunits is termed a (n)

1. monomer
2. polymer
3. micromolecule
4. amino acid
5. more than one is correct

23. One of the products dehydration synthesis always is

1. dissaccharides
2. fats
3. proteins
4. nucleic acids
5. water

24. In hydrolysis

1. two smaller molecules bond to form a large molecule
2. water is always an end product
3. large molecules break down into simpler units plus water
4. water is used to break down large molecules into simpler units
5. none of the above

25. Carbohydrates function primarily as

1. structural molecules
2. components of membranes
3. fuel molecules
4. enzymes
5. catalysts

26. Common table sugar, sucrose is an example of a (an)

1. monosaccharide
2. disaccharide
3. polysaccharide
4. monomer
5. starch

27. The common future which holds lipids together as a class is their

1. solubility in polar solvents
2. insolubility in nonpolar solvents
3. solubility in nonpolar solvents
4. atomic composition
5. common structural pattern

28. The peptide bond forms between

1. 2 carbon atoms
2. carbon and nitrogen atoms
3. carbon and oxygen atoms
4. carbon and hydrogen atoms
5. none of the above

29. The biological activity of protein depends upon their

1. primary structure
2. secondary structure
3. tertiary and quaternary structure
4. enzymatic activity
5. active site

30. Proteins function as

1. biological catalysts
2. defense molecules
3. structural molecules
4. contraction molecules
5. more than one is correct

31. Enzymes catalyze reactions by

1. lowering the energy of activation
2. raising the energy of activation
3. increasing the free energy of the reaction
4. decreasing the free energy of the reaction
5. more than one is correct

32. That portion of an enzyme which "fits" the reactants is known as the

1. apoenzyme
2. coenzyme
3. active site
4. secondary structure
5. template

33. A coenzyme

1. is necessary for an enzyme to function
2. typically is a small organic molecule
3. frequently is derived from one of the vitamins
4. may serve as a hydrogen acceptor
5. more than one is correct

34. In a solution the component which is present is the lesser amount is termed the

1. solvent
2. solute
3. volume
4. weight
5. none of the above

35. You desire to make a 15% solution of sodium chloride. To do this you would mix

1. 15 grams of water + 85 grams of sodium chloride
2. 25 grams of water + 75 grams of sodium chloride
3. 15 grams of sodium chloride + 75 grams of water
4. 15 grams of sodium chloride + 85 grams water

36. The molecular weight of a chemical is 45. A 0.10 molar solution of this chemical would be made by adding

1. 45 grams of the chemical and enough water to make one liter
2. 45 grams of the chemical and 55 grams of water
3. 4.5 grams of the chemical and 99.5 grams of water
4. 4.5 grams of the chemical and enough water to make one liter
5. 10 grams of the chemical and 90 grams of water

37. All living things are composed of cells and / or cells products, and all cells come from preexisting cells is a statement of the

1. atomic theory
2. theory of natural selection
3. theory of acquired characteristics
4. cell theory
5. none of the above

38. According to the fluid mosaic model the plasma membrane contains

1. integral proteins
2. peripheral proteins
3. a bilayer of lipid
4. lipid molecules with polar and non-polar ends
5. more than one of the above is correct

39. The organelle which serves as the site of energy production is the

1. Ribosome
2. mitochondrion
3. endoplasmic reticular
4. peroxisome
5. lysosome

40. The organelle which is concerned with the function of packaging cell secretions is the

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. mitochondrion
3. Ribosome
4. golgi apparatus
5. peroxisome

41. The organelle which is concerned with the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide is the

1. mitochondrion
2. lysosome
3. endoplasmic reticulum
4. peroxisome
5. desmosome

42. The membrane junction where the adjacent membrane are fused together eliminating all extracellular space is the

1. tight junction’
2. desmosome
3. gap junction
4. microfilaments
5. microtubule

43. Which of the following solutions of sugar would have the highest osmotic pressure?

1. 1%
2. 2%
3. 3%
4. 4%
5. 5%

44. A 5% sugar solution is separated from a 10% solution by a selectively permeable membrane. Which way would water move?

1. from 10 % to the 5%
2. from the 5% to the 10%
3. it could be either direction, depending upon the osmotic pressure of the solutions
4. it could be either direction, depending upon the temperature
5. water would not move in either direction because of the membrane

45. The ingestion of fluid droplets by a cell is termed

1. osmosis
2. diffusion
3. phagocytosis
4. pinocytosis
5. none of the above

46. Which of the following would have the greatest amount of entropy

1. radio
2. television
3. computer
4. cell
5. rock

47. The ultimate source of energy from the cells of our body is

1. ATP
2. Glucose
3. Green plants
4. The sun
5. Radioactivity

48. A molecule which has a hydrogen removed is said to have been

1. hydrolyzed
2. oxidized
3. reduced
4. isomerized
5. none of the above

49. The universal energy currency for the cells is

1. ATP
2. ADP
3. AMP
4. NAD
5. STP

50. During glycolysis glucose is broken down into 3 carbon molecules known as

1. lactic acid
2. acetyl CoA
3. pyruvic acid
4. citric acid
5. alpha ketoglutaric acid

51. During glycolysis ____ hydrogens are transferred to NAD

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 6

52. The hydrogen acceptor for glycolysis and also for the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is

1. FAD
2. ADP
3. ATP
4. NAD
5. O2

53. At the start of the Kreb’s cycle, acetyl CoA bonds with a 4 carbon compound to yield

1. alpha ketoglutaric acid
2. lactic acid
3. pyruvic acid
4. citric acid
5. oxaloacetic acid

54. The final hydrogen acceptor of the electron transport system is

1. NAD
2. FAD
3. ATP
4. ADP
5. O2

55. Which of the following does DNA not contain?

1. adenine
2. thymine
3. guanine
4. cytosine
5. ribose

56. What would be the complementary strand of the following section of a DNA molecule: AGGT

1. TGGA
2. TCCA
3. TCCG
4. ATCG
5. GCAT

57. RNA is synthesized from

1. mRNA
2. tRNA
3. rRNA
4. DNA
5. None of the above

58. RNA differs from DNA in that

1. RNA is single stranded
2. RNA contains ribose
3. RNA contains uracil
4. RNA does not contain thymine
5. More than one is correct

59. Which of the following sequence would code for one amino acid?

1. CCCGGG
2. CC
3. CCCC
4. CCC
5. CCCT

60. The anticodon of the triplet code word GGG would be

1. CCC
2. GGG
3. TTT
4. AAA
5. UUU

61. The RNA which carries amino acid to the ribosome is

1. mRNA
2. tRNA
3. rRNA
4. zRNA
5. none of the above

62. In order for a visible trait such as brown eye color to appear there must be

1. an enzyme to catalyze the reaction to produce brown pigment
2. a messenger RNA molecule with codons which code for the enzyme
3. a segment of the DNA which codes for the amino acids for the enzyme
4. all of the above

63. The chromosome align themselves on the cell equator during

1. prophase
2. anaphase
3. telophase
4. metaphase
5. cytokinesis

64. The centromeres split or duplicate during

1. prophase
2. metaphase
3. anaphase
4. telophase
5. cytokinesis

65. Phospholipid molecules are usually found in

1. ribosome
2. enzyme
3. cell membrane
4. DNA
5. Polysaccharides

66. A competitive inhibitor

1. attaches to a part of the enzyme and causes a change n the shape of the active site
2. competes with the normal substrate of the active site
3. competes with the normal substrate for a position other than the active site
4. compete with a coenzyme
5. none of the above

67. Colloids are

1. true solutions
2. suspension
3. intermediate between solutions and suspensions
4. the active form of DNA
5. none of the above

68. The use of membranes to separates dissolved substances based upon their diffusablity through the membrane is known as

1. facilitated diffusion
2. osmosis
3. filtration
4. bulk flow
5. dialysis

69. Filtration across capillary walls requires

1. blood pressure
2. bulk flow
3. diffusion
4. facilitated diffusion
5. osmosis

70. Facilitated diffusion requires

1. carrier molecules
2. a concentration gradient
3. energy
4. membrane
5. more than one is correct

BIOL 2401 - EXAM 1C

SELECT THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER.

1. The division of anatomy that deal with tissues is

1. gross
2. regional
3. histology
4. cytology
5. ultrastructure

2. The noninvasive anatomical technique that utilizes high frequency sound waves is

1. CT scanning
2. Microtomography
3. MRI
4. DSR
5. Sonography

3. The study of function best defines

1. histology
2. cytology
3. sonography
4. physiology
5. ultrastructure

4. The characteristics possessed by all living things that permits them to react to environmental changes is

1. irritability (excitability)
2. metabolism
3. growth
4. reproduction
5. adaptation

5. Which of the following would be included in the molecular level of complexity?

1. tissues
2. atoms
3. cells
4. organs
5. organ systems

6. The ability of an organism to maintain a fairly constant internal environment in spite of a changing external environment best describes

1. the molecular level of organization
2. homeostasis
3. physiology
4. ultrastructure
5. long term adaptation

7. The major mechanism of homeostasis is

1. positive feedback
2. neutral feedback
3. no feedback
4. negative feedback
5. reverse osmosis

8. The subatomic particle with a positive charge is the

1. proton
2. electron
3. neutron
4. atom
5. ion

9. A substance that contained only one kind of atom would be a (an)

1. base
2. compound
3. element
4. acid
5. electron

10. Any substance which releases a hydrogen ion when placed in solution is a (an)

1. base
2. atom
3. element
4. acid
5. ion

11. The atomic weight of carbon is 12 and that of oxygen is 16. The molecular weight of carbon dioxide (CO2) would be

1. 24
2. 48
3. 44
4. 40
5. 64

12. Covalent bonds form whenever

1. an electron is transferred from one atom to another
2. an electrical attraction exists between two atoms
3. two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons
4. two atoms gain of lose neutrons
5. the proton and electron numbers are not equal

13. Hydrogen bonds are very important in biological chemistry because they

1. are very strong
2. are electrically neutral
3. dissociate to yield hydrogen ion
4. give three dimensional shape to bioorganic molecules
5. neutralize excess base

14. Ions are

1. unstable isotopes
2. formed from compounds made up of non-polar covalent bonds
3. electrically charged atoms
4. of little significance in physiology
5. very high molecular weigh compounds

15. An ionic bond forms whenever

1. a pair of electrons is mutually shared between two atoms
2. a pair of electrons is shared unequally between two atoms
3. an neutron is lost from the nucleus of an atom
4. an electron is transferred from one atom to another
5. non-polar covalent bonded compounds are dissolved in water

16. Which of the following pH values would be the most acid?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6

17. Below is a list of pH values for different solutions. Which solution would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6

18. A substance which will convert a strong acid into a weak acid best describes a (an)

1. ion
2. isotope
3. hydrogen bond
4. buffer
5. enzyme

19. Carbon has a unique property which permits it to become the major structural molecule of organic compounds. This property is

1. the presence of four electrons in its outer shell
2. an atomic weight of 12
3. the existence of several isotopic forms
4. the ability to form long chains by covalent bonding with other carbon atoms
5. the ability to form ionic bonds

20. A major advantage of Positron Emission Tomography is the ability to

1. make high resolution cross sections of the body
2. avoid the use of radiation
3. trace blood flow in the brain
4. destroy X ray producing free radicals
5. visualize fetuses within the uterus

21. A large molecule made up of repeating subunits would best describe a (an)

1. monomer
2. polymer
3. simple sugar
4. fatty acid
5. amino acid

22. Two simple sugars are joined by dehydration synthesis to form a disaccharide. Another product of this reaction will be

1. oxygen
2. hydrogen
3. water
4. carbon dioxide
5. ammonia

23. The addition of water across a covalent bond that results in the breakdown of large molecule into its fundamental structural units best describes

1. dehydration synthesis
2. condensation
3. oxidation-reduction
4. hydrolysis
5. replacement

24. A major function for carbohydrates in the body is

1. defense
2. enzymes
3. coenzymes
4. membrane channels
5. fuel

25. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?

1. glucose
2. sucrose
3. starch
4. fructose
5. ribose

26. Lipids are composed of

1. C, H, & O
2. C, H, O, & N
3. C, H, & N
4. C, H, & P
5. C, H, N, O, & P

27. A triglyceride consists of glycerol and

1. three amino acids
2. three simple sugars
3. three nucleotides
4. two fatty acids
5. three fatty acids

28. The subunits of protein is the

1. amino acid
2. fatty acid
3. simple sugar
4. nucleotide
5. nitrogen

29. The peptide bond forms between

1. nitrogen and oxygen
2. nitrogen and hydrogen
3. carbon and oxygen
4. carbon and nitrogen
5. carbon and hydrogen

30. The level of structure in proteins that involves association of several polypeptide chains would be the

1. primary
2. secondary
3. tertiary
4. quaternary
5. sextary

31. You would anticipate that a change in pH would cause the most significant change in a protein’s

1. primary structure
2. secondary structure
3. amino acid sequence
4. tertiary structure
5. amino acid composition

32. Enzymes function as

1. biological catalysts
2. structural components of cells
3. antibodies
4. parts of large carbohydrate molecules
5. cofactors in biochemical reactions

33. Enzymes function by

1. competing with the active site
2. increasing the energy of activation of a reaction
3. decreasing the energy of activation of a reaction
4. changing the total amount of energy in a reaction
5. altering the pH during a reaction

34. Most coenzymes in the body are derived from

1. enzymes
2. ions
3. nucleic acids
4. vitamins
5. the respiratory gases

35. A 5% vol./vol. solution would be prepared by adding

1. 5 grams of solute to enough solvent to make 100 ml
2. 5 ml of solute to enough solvent to make 100 grams of solution
3. 5 grams of solute to enough solvent to make 100 ml
4. 5 ml of solute to enough solvent to make 100 ml

36. Sodium has an atomic wt. Of 23, oxygen 16, and hydrogen 1. To make a 0.1 molar solution of NAOH it would be necessary to add ____ grams of NAOH.

1. 0.4
2. 40
3. 4
4. 0.004
5. 23

37. Which of the following aspects of the cell theory apply to the reproductive process?

1. All cells come from preexisting cells.
2. The cells is the basic structural unit of life.
3. The cell is the functional unit of life.
4. All living things are composed of cells.
5. Cells make up tissues.

38. The continuos portion of the cell membrane is made up of

1. a single layer of lipid molecules
2. a single layer of protein molecules
3. 2 layers of lipid molecules
4. 2 layers of protein molecules
5. glycoproteins

39. In the membrane, channels through which polar molecules can pass are made up of

1. lipid
2. carbohydrates
3. phospholipids
4. protein
5. polysaccharides

40. The cytoskeletal elements that seem to play a role in the movement of cells are the

1. microtubles
2. microfilaments
3. intermediate filaments
4. ribosomes
5. peroxisomes

41. The organelle which regulates the entry and exit of materials to and from the cell is the

1. endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi body
3. cell (plasma) membrane
4. cytoskeleton
5. peroxisome

42. The organelles which contains oxidize enzymes and can detoxify free radicals are the

1. lysosomes
2. peroxisomes
3. centrosomes
4. mitochondria
5. ribosomes

43. The organelles which serve as the sites of protein synthesis are the

1. lysosomes
2. peroxisomes
3. centrosomes
4. mitochondria
5. ribosomes

44. Both flagella and cilia are anchored into the cytoplasm by means of the

1. mitochondria
2. peroxisomes
3. basal bodies
4. centrioles
5. nucleoli

45. The site of ribosome synthesis is the

1. nucleolus
2. basal body
3. centriole
4. peroxisome
5. lysosome

46. Chromosomes contain

1. lipid molecules
2. carbohydrate molecules
3. the genetic code
4. catalase
5. oxidase

47. Which of the following means crossing cell membranes requires the expenditure of energy by the cell?

1. diffusion
2. osmosis
3. filtration
4. active transport

48. A large protein molecule would most likely be taken into a cell by means of

1. osmosis
2. receptor mediated endocytosis
3. diffusion
4. filtration
5. active transport

49. A solution which is hypotonic to a red blood cell would have osmotic pressure

1. less than the cell
2. greater than the cell
3. equal to the cell

50. Solution A is hypertonic to solution B. Solution B

1. contains less water than A
2. contains more water than A
3. contains the same percentage of water as A
4. contains a greater percentage of solute than A
5. contains the same percentage of solute as A

51. The ultimate source of energy for our bodies is the sun, because it

1. keeps our body temperature up
2. insures that water is liquid at earth temperatures
3. provides the energy for generating covalent bonds in organic molecules
4. is responsible for ionization
5. is responsible for hydrogen bond formation

52. The degree of disorder contained in a system is a measure of its

1. composition
2. type of chemical bonding
3. entropy
4. temperature
5. water content

53. Which of the following would be the lowest entropy system?

1. computer
2. gas in a bottle
3. liquid in a bottle
4. rock
5. mixture of gases

54. The removal of hydrogen from a carbon atom and its transfer to an oxygen constitutes a (an)

1. reduction of carbon
2. oxidation of carbon
3. oxidation of oxygen
4. oxidation of hydrogen
5. reduction of hydrogen

55. Energy released by oxidation reduction reaction is utilized by the cells to directly

1. synthesize ATP
2. synthesize protein
3. hydrolyze protein
4. synthesize lipid

56. ATP is synthesized from ADP by adding a phosphate group along with

1. carbon
2. hydrogen
3. oxygen
4. energy
5. nitrogen

57. During glycolysis, a total of _______ hydrogen are transferred to NAD per glucose molecules.

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
5. 10

58. A net gain of _______ ATP occurs during glycolysis

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
5. 1

59. If oxygen is present, pyruvic acid will be converted into

1. lactid acid
2. malic acid
3. citric acid
4. acetyl CoA
5. alpha keto-glutaric acid

60. The principal hydrogen acceptor during cellular respiration is

1. carbon
2. NAD
3. FAD
4. acetyl CoA
5. oxaloacetic acid

61. Citric acid contains _______ carbon atoms

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6

62. The final hydrogen acceptor in cellular respiration is

1. NAD
2. FAD
3. FMN
4. cytochromes
5. oxygen

63. Beta oxidation of a fatty acid yields 30 NADH2, the total amount of ATP generated would be

1. 30
2. 60
3. 90
4. 120
5. 150

64. During the Krebs cycle a total of _______ ATP are produced directly per glucose molecule

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 6

65. In the DNA molecule, the dehydration bond forms between

1. adenine and phosphate
2. sugar and adenine
3. sugar and phosphate
4. adenine and thymine
5. adenine and cytosine

66. Which of the following bases would you expect to find only in RNA?

1. thymine
2. adenine
3. cytosine
4. guanine
5. uracil

67. During DNA replication, nucleotides are added

1. to the end of the chain with the free phosphate (5’)
2. to the end of the chain with the free hydroxyl (3’)
3. in parallel fashion
4. to guanine primed nucleotides only
5. to adenine primed nucleotides only

68. The sequence of a strand of DNA is A A T C G. The sequence of bases in the complementary strand would be

1. A A T C G
2. A A G C C
3. T T A G C
4. A A A A A
5. U U A G C

69. Which of the following is do RNA and DNA share in common?

1. both contain uracil
2. both are single stranded
3. both are double stranded
4. both contain ribosome
5. both contain adenine

70. Codons are found in

1. mRNA
2. tRNA
3. rRNA
4. sRNA
5. Single stranded DNA

71. Amino acids are deposited in their appropriate place during protein synthesis by

1. DNA
2. tRNA
3. mRNA
4. rRNA
5. ATP

72. Transcription occurs

1. on the ribosomes
2. in the ER
3. in the Golgi body
4. in the nucleus
5. in the cytoplasm

73. Which of the following would code for a single amino acid?

1. AAA
2. AA
3. A
4. AAAA
5. AAAAA

74. The triplet code word is CCC. The anticodon will be

1. UUU
2. GGG
3. CCC
4. AAA
5. TTT

75. The anticodon is UAU. The triplet code word would be

1. UAU
2. UTU
3. TAT
4. ATA
5. AAA

76. Which of the following sequences is correct for the expression of a genetic trait.

1. DNA – mRNA – trait – enzyme – reaction
2. mRNA – DNA – enzyme – trait – reaction
3. DNA - mRNA – enzyme – reaction – trait
4. DNA – mRNA – reaction – enzyme – trait

77. DNA replicates during the _______ part of interphase.

1. G1
2. G2
3. G3
4. S
5. D

78. The duplicated chromosomes appear during

1. interphase
2. prophase
3. metaphase
4. anaphase
5. telophase

79. When a primary tumor gives rise to secondary tumors, the process is termed

1. angiogen
2. oncology
3. neoplasm
4. metastasis
5. sarcoma

80. A gene that transforms a normal cell into a cancerous one is termed a (n)

1. proto-oncogene
2. sarcoma
3. oncogene
4. Epstein-Barr
5. papilloma