Bio2401 - EXAM 4A

(22 pages total)

CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER.

  1. All of the following are functions of the nervous system except for
  1. control
  2. command
  3. communication with muscles
  4. communication with sensory organs
  5. nutrient transport
  1. The smooth muscle organs of the body are directly innervated by the
  1. sensory division
  2. brain
  3. spinal cord
  4. autonomic division
  5. somatic division
  1. Which of the following is a function of the oligodendrocytes?
  1. induction of the blood brain barrier
  2. formation of myelin
  3. formation of scar tissue
  4. metabolism of glutamate
  5. maintenance of potassium levels
  1. The ventricles are lined by
  1. astrocytes
  2. oligodendrocytes
  3. neurons
  4. ependymal cells
  5. microgliocytes
  1. Phagocytes in the CNS is largely the function of the
  1. astrocytes
  2. oligodendrocytes
  3. neurons
  4. ependymal cells
  5. microgliocytes
  1. Condensations of the rough ER in neurons forms
  1. neurofibrils
  2. nissil bodies
  3. dendrites
  4. axons
  5. myelin
  1. The outermost layer of the Schwann cell in a myelinated process forms the
  1. neurilemma
  2. node of Ranvier
  3. axonal membrane
  4. neurofibrils
  5. dendrite
  1. The oligondendrite is to the CNS as the _______ is to the peripheral nervous system.
  1. mircogliocyte
  2. Schwann cell
  3. Astrocyte
  4. Neuron
  5. Ependymal cell
  1. A neuron has 7 major processes radiating off of the cell body. It would be classified as
  1. sensory
  2. unipolar
  3. multipolar
  4. bipolar
  5. apolar
  1. Conduction in which only the nodes of Ranvier depolarizes is termed
  1. slow
  2. continuous
  3. saltatory
  4. ephatic
  5. polarized
  1. Which of the following would be most important in determining the conduction velocity of a neuron?
  1. length of the neuron
  2. location in the body
  3. resting membrane of the neuron
  4. diameter of the neuron
  5. whether or not it is motor or sensory
  1. The junction of two or more neurons best defines a
  1. center
  2. synapse
  3. ganglion
  4. nucleus
  5. nerve
  1. Transmission of an action potential across a chemical synapse involves the
  1. release of neurotransmitter by the postsynaptic neuron
  2. release of the neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron
  3. absorption of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron
  4. jumping of the action potential across the synapse
  5. hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic neuron
  1. An inhibitory neuron would most likely release
  1. norepinephrine
  2. dopamine
  3. acetylcholine
  4. serotonin
  5. endorphin
  1. In electrical synapse, the presynaptic neuron communicates with the postsynaptic neuron via
  1. excitatory neurotransmitters
  2. inhibitory neurotransmitters
  3. desmosomes
  4. gap junctions
  5. neuromodulators
  1. A postsynaptic neuron has a resting membrane potential of –70 mv. Following a learning exercise it is found that the resting potential of this neuron is now –60 mv. This neuron has been
  1. fired
  2. inhibited
  3. facilitated
  4. delayed
  5. fatigued
  1. Neural pathways are one way because
  1. only dendrites release neurotransmitter
  2. both dendrites and axon release neurotransmitter
  3. only axons release neurotransmitter
  4. the action potential can only move in one direction on a membrane
  5. synapes are polarized
  1. At given synapse it is found that there are ten presynaptic neurons and one hundred postsynaptic neurons. This is an example of
  1. convergence
  2. temporal summation
  3. spatial summation
  4. divergence
  5. EPSP
  1. A neuromodulator is a substance which
  1. functions as an excitatory neurotransmitter
  2. functions as an inhibitory neurotransmitter
  3. causes presynaptic inhibition
  4. alters the activity of neurons but is not a neurotransmitter
  5. causes depolarization of postsynaptic neurons
  1. A bundle of neuronal processes found in the PNS best defines
  1. nerve
  2. tract
  3. center
  4. ganglion
  5. nucleus
  1. The functional equivalent of a ganglion that is found in the CNS is a
  1. nerve
  2. tract
  3. center
  4. nucleus
  5. synapse
  1. Gray matter is composed largely of
  1. tracts
  2. nerves
  3. myelinated processes
  4. synapses
  5. Schwann cells
  1. The outer meningeal membrane is the
  1. dura mater
  2. pia mater
  3. arachonoid
  4. ependymal membrane
  5. choroid villus
  1. Meningitis refers to
  1. secretion of CSF
  2. reabosrbtion of CSF
  3. inflammation of the meninges
  4. fusion of the meniges with the cranial bones
  5. loss of the meninges
  1. The embryonic region of the brain the gives rise to the forebrain is the
  1. diencephalon
  2. prosencephalon
  3. rhombencephalon
  4. mesencephalon
  5. metancephalon
  1. The largest of the four ventricles are found in the
  1. metencephalon
  2. midbrain region
  3. diencephalon
  4. cerebral hemispheres
  5. spinal cord
  1. CSF is formed by
  1. filtration of plasma across the choriod plexes
  2. filtration of plasma across the arachnoid villi
  3. microgliocytes
  4. astrocytes
  5. oligodendrocytes
  1. Failure of CSF to drain properly can lead to
  1. blockage of the arachnoid villi
  2. hydrocephalus
  3. multiplication of astrocytes
  4. meningitis
  5. blockage of the ventricles
  1. The largest structure in the metancephalon region of the brain is the
  1. cerebral hemispheres
  2. cerebellum
  3. corpora quadrigeminal
  4. medulla oblongata
  5. thalamus
  1. The frontal lobes are separated from the parietal lobes by the
  1. lateral fissure
  2. longitudinal fissure
  3. gyri
  4. central sulcus
  5. corpus callosum
  1. The major band of commissural fibers is contained in the
  1. corpus callsum
  2. frontal lobes
  3. cortex
  4. lateral fissure
  5. central sulcus
  1. The outer layer of the cerebrum is known as the
  1. lateral fissure
  2. sulk
  3. gyri
  4. cortex
  5. corpus callosum
  1. The center that is responsible for integrating the sensory association areas is the
  1. auditory association area
  2. visual association area
  3. primary somesthetic area
  4. gnostic area
  5. primary olfactory area
  1. The basal ganglia seem to function by
  1. stimulating motor activity
  2. inhibiting motor activity
  3. relaying sensory information
  4. inhibiting sensory information
  5. interrupting sensory input
  1. The internal capsule functions to
  1. enclose the basal ganglia
  2. protect the choriod plexi
  3. connect the cerebral cortex to the remainder to the CNS
  4. connect the cerebellum to the pons and medulla
  5. enclose association fibers
  1. Which of the following structure contribute to the limbic system except for the
  1. hippocampus
  2. hypothalamus
  3. basal ganglia
  4. cerebellum
  5. cerebral cortex
  1. The inferior colliculi function in
  1. visual reflexes
  2. auditory reflexes
  3. pain reflexes
  4. withdrawal reflexes
  5. crossed-extensor reflexes
  1. A major function of the pons is to
  1. connect the cerebral hemispheres together
  2. connect the cerebellur hemisperes together
  3. initiate spinal reflexes
  4. serve as a heart rate reflex center
  5. regulate blood pressure
  1. The small central portion of the cerebellum is termed the
  1. peducle
  2. vermis
  3. arbor vitae
  4. hemisphere
  5. internal capsule
  1. A function of the cerebellum is to
  1. initiate motor activity
  2. connect the cerebral hemispheres together
  3. interpret pain and touch
  4. coordinate motor activity
  5. activate the pons
  1. 43. Which of the following reflex centers would be associated with the corpora quadrigemina?
  1. blood pressure
  2. eye movement
  3. heart rate
  4. respiration
  5. digestion
  1. The reticular activating system is responsible for
  1. regulation of blood pressure
  2. initiating motor activity
  3. maintaining the awake state
  4. activation of the skeletal muscles
  5. activation of the major glands
  1. Which of the following would be associated primarily with the right cerebral hemisphere?
  1. logic
  2. artistic ability
  3. verbalization
  4. sequential processing of information
  5. analysis
  1. The portion of the spinal cord that gives rise to a pair of spinal nerves is termed a (an)
  1. spinal segment
  2. cauda equina
  3. conus medularis
  4. lateral funiculus
  5. central canal
  1. The abducens nerve supplies the
  1. stomach
  2. upper face
  3. lower jaw
  4. extrinsic muscles of the eye
  5. intrinsic muscles of the eye
  1. The nerve controls the muscles of the tongue is the
  1. vagus
  2. hypoglossal
  3. glossopharyngeal
  4. trochlear
  5. trigeminal
  1. There are _____ pairs of cervical spinal nerves
  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 12
  5. 5
  1. The anterior musculature and skin is supplied by the
  1. dorsal ramus
  2. white ramus
  3. gray ramus
  4. ventral ramus
  5. lateral ramus
  1. The diaphragm receives its innervation from the
  1. thoracic plexus
  2. brachial plexus
  3. cervical plexus
  4. lumbosacral plexus
  5. dorsal ramus
  1. What is missing from the following pattern?

Receptor- Afferent neuron-motor neuron-effector

  1. bipolar neuron
  2. integrator
  3. unipolar neuron
  4. white column
  5. reflex arc
  1. Which of the following would be an example of voluntary movement?
  1. removal of hand from a hot stove
  2. removal of foot from a sharp object
  3. extension of the leg apposite the leg which came in the contact with sharp object
  4. talking
  5. focusing of eyes on a near object
  1. The stretch reflex, whereby the stretching of a muscle initiates contraction is the best example of a (an)
  1. monosynaptic reflex
  2. three neuron reflex
  3. reciprocal innervation
  4. polysynaptic reflex
  5. crossed extension reflex
  1. The knee jerk (patellar) reflex is a good example of a
  1. monosynaptic reflex
  2. three neuron reflex
  3. crossed extensor reflex
  4. inhibitory reflex
  5. voluntary movement
  1. When neuron A fires,
  1. neuron D will fire
  2. neuron E will not fire
  3. neuron C will fire
  4. neuron B will fire
  5. neurons B and D will fire
  1. The neurons labeled "I" would most likely release the neurotransmitter
  1. acetylcholine
  2. norepinephrine
  3. serotonin
  4. GABA
  5. Dopamine
  1. The diagram best illustrates
  1. voluntary movement
  2. a monosynaptic reflex
  3. the crossed extensor reflex
  4. a spinal reflex when reciprocal innervation is not involved
  5. a spinal reflex in which excitation plays no role
  1. A spinal reflex can be activated
  1. only by a peripheral sensory receptor
  2. only by one of the higher brain centers
  3. only through the visual pathway
  4. by either a peripheral receptor or a higher brain center
  5. from only within the gray columns of the spinal cord
  1. In the corticospinal tracts
  1. all of the fibers cross over
  2. only the fibers of the lateral tracts cross over
  3. only the fibers of the ventral tracts cross over
  4. all but about ten percent cross over
  5. the left side of the brain controls the left side of the body
  1. Which of the following is an extracorticospinal tract?
  1. lateral pyramidal
  2. ventral pyramidal
  3. lateral spinothalamic
  4. rubrospinal
  5. ventral spinothalamic
  1. A reverberating neural circuit is the most likely physiological explanation for
  1. pain perception
  2. long term memory
  3. short term memory
  4. REM sleep
  5. NREM sleep
  1. In sleep
  1. the RAS is very active
  2. REM is the longer period
  3. NREM is the longer period
  4. Neuronal activity is greater in NREM
  5. The percentage of time spend in REM increases with age
  1. The division of the ANS that controls "fight or flight" situations is the
  1. craniosacral division
  2. somatic division
  3. sympathetic division
  4. parasympathetic division
  5. sensory division
  1. The chain ganglia of the sympathetic division are connected to the collateral ganglia by the
  1. gray ramus
  2. white ramus
  3. dorsal ramus
  4. ventral ramus
  5. splanchnic nerve
  1. The stomach, liver, spleen, kidney, and small intestine are supplied with sympathetic fibers from the
  1. cardiac plexus
  2. solar plexus
  3. hypogastric plexus
  4. tenth cranial nerve
  5. seventh cranial nerve
  1. The parasympathetic division
  1. arises from the thoracic lumbar regions of the cord
  2. generally has short preganglionic fibers and long postganglionic fibers
  3. has most of its fibers arising from the lumbosacral plexus
  4. generally has long preganglionic fibers and short postganglionic fibers
  5. controls "fight or flight" activities
  1. Preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division release
  1. norepinephrine
  2. serotonin
  3. GABA
  4. Acetylcholine
  5. Dopamine
  1. The acetylcholine receptors of the target tissues of the parasympathetic division are the ______ receptors
  1. alpha
  2. beta
  3. muscarinic
  4. nicotinic
  5. endorphin
  1. You would expect that an individual at rest, digesting a large meal, would be primarily under the influence the
  1. sympathetic division
  2. parasympathetic division
  3. somatic division
  4. sensory division
  5. endocrine system
  1. Increased activity in the parasympathetic division might result in
  1. dilated pupils
  2. goose bumps
  3. increased perspiration
  4. increased salivary gland secretion
  5. increased blood flow to the muscles
  1. The ANS plays a critical role in maintaining homeostasis by
  1. causing positive feed back
  2. inhibiting negative feedback
  3. maintaining a constant internal environment
  4. increasing the strength of muscle contraction
  5. inhibition of motor pathways
  1. The hypothalamus is critical to the proper functioning of the ANS because it
  1. increases muscle sensitivity to stimuli
  2. serves as a modulator for the sensory pathways
  3. serves as the major integrating center for the ANS
  4. establishes circadian rhythms
  5. contains no gray matter
  1. The body temperature thermostat is located in the
  1. sympathetic division
  2. parasympathetic division
  3. medulla
  4. hypothalamus
  5. pons
  1. The substance that causes the resetting of the body thermostat during fever is
  1. norepinephrine
  2. endorphin
  3. prostaglandin
  4. acetylcholine
  5. serotonin
  1. The disease which results from destruction of the myelin sheath is
  1. multiple sclerosis
  2. cerebral palsy
  3. grand mal epilepsy
  4. petit mal epilepsy
  5. psychomotor epilepsy
  1. The first component of the sensory unit is the
  1. interpreting center
  2. neural pathway
  3. receptor
  4. efferent neuron
  5. effector
  1. Receptors which provide information about the body positions and movements are the
  1. exteroceptors
  2. visceroceptors
  3. chemoreceptors
  4. proprioreceptors
  5. light receptors
  1. The process by which a receptor eventually fails to respond when exposed to a stimulus of constant strength over a period of time best defines
  1. CNS adaptation
  2. Receptor adaptation
  3. Transduction
  4. Neuromodulation
  5. Seduction
  1. The fact that the eyes respond better to electromagnetic energy than they do to mechanical energy is a statement of the
  1. peter principle
  2. law of specific nerve energies
  3. law of transduction
  4. law of adaptation
  5. law of operational energetics
  1. The local potential generated on a receptor in response to a stimulus is known as a (an)
  1. miniature end plate potential
  2. excitatory post synaptic potential
  3. inhibitory post synaptic potential
  4. generator potential
  5. action potential
  1. Which of the following receptors is associated with detection of pressure?
  1. Pacinian corpuscle
  2. Meissner’s corpuscle
  3. End organ of Rufini
  4. End bulb of Krause
  5. Merkel’s disk
  1. Pain is detected by
  1. Pacinian corpuscle
  2. Meissner’s corpuscle
  3. Free nerve endings
  4. Merkel’s disk
  5. End organ of Rufini
  1. The spinothalamic tracts consist of a chain of _______ neurons
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  1. The proprioreceptor which determines the amount of contraction a muscle is undergoing is the
  1. tendon receptor
  2. muscle spindle
  3. joint receptor
  4. nocireceptor
  5. primary somesthetic area
  1. Which of the following does not have a taste receptor that will respond to it?
  1. sweet
  2. salt
  3. bitter
  4. menthol
  5. sour
  1. The sensory receptors for olfaction
  1. are located in the taste buds
  2. possess a gustatory pore for odors to enter
  3. are embedded in a stratified epithelium
  4. are arranged in the pores of the cribriform plate
  5. do not adapt
  1. The outer layer of the eye is termed the
  1. sclera
  2. choroid
  3. retina
  4. ciliary body
  5. tapetum lucidum
  1. Which of the following structures is associated with the scleroid layer?
  1. ciliary body
  2. cornea
  3. iris
  4. lens
  5. vitreous body
  1. Cutaneous receptors on the surface of the eye are contained in the
  1. cornea
  2. sclera
  3. conjunctiva
  4. choroid
  5. extrinsic muscles
  1. The structure which is responsible for most of the bending of light that occurs when focusing an image on the retina of the eye is the
  1. lens
  2. cornea
  3. aqueous humor
  4. vitreous humor
  5. bipolar neuron layer
  1. When a person is focused on an object two feet from her eyes, you would expect that the
  1. ciliary body will be contracting
  2. ciliary body will be relaxed
  3. pupil will be constricted
  4. pupil will be dilated
  5. estrinsic muscles will all be relaxed
  1. There are populations of cones in the retina that respond to the colors
    1. red, blue, and yellow
    2. red, blue, and green
    3. blue, orange, and green
    4. red, yellow, and green
    5. red, blue, and orange
    1. The auditory or eustachian tube opens directly into the
    1. outer ear
    2. inner ear
    3. middle ear
    4. saccule
    5. utricle
    1. The ear ossicle that attaches directly to the tympanic membrane is the
    1. stapes
    2. malleus
    3. incus
    4. saccule
    5. utricle
    1. The partition between the scala media (cochlear duct) and the scala tympani is the
    1. Reissner membrane
    2. Vestibular membrane
    3. Basilar membrane
    4. Oval window
    5. Round window
    1. The sound wave that moves through the perilymph expends itself on the
    1. vestibular membrane
    2. basilar membrane
    3. round window
    4. oval window
    5. stapes
    1. The otoliths are directly suspended or embedded in the
    1. saccule
    2. utricle
    3. macula
    4. ampulla
    5. semicircular canal
    1. The farsightedness of old age is referred to as
    1. myopia
    2. presbyopia
    3. hyperopia
    4. astigmatism
    5. glaucoma
    1. Clouding of the lens is known as
    1. glaucoma
    2. presbyopia
    3. vertigo
    4. cataracts
    5. astigmatism

     

     

     

    Bio2401 EXAM 4B

    CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER.

    1. The nervous system functions in
    1. command
    2. control
    3. communication
    4. integration
    5. more than one of the above
    1. Which of the following is the subdivision which innervates smooth and cardiac muscle?
    1. somatic division
    2. automatic division
    3. brain
    4. spinal cord
    5. endocrine system
    1. The cell which is responsible for myelination in the CNS is the
    1. astrocyte
    2. Schwann cell
    3. Ependymal cell
    4. Microgliocyte
    5. Oligodendrocyte
    1. The cell which is responsible for the formation of the neurilemma is the
    1. neuron
    2. Schwann cell
    3. Microgliocyte
    4. Oligodendrocyte
    5. Astrocyte
    1. The neurons which connect sensory and motor neurons are classified as
    1. unipolar
    2. bipolar
    3. interconnecting
    4. afferent
    5. efferent
    1. Nissal bodies function as
    1. sites of neurotransmitters release
    2. sites of protein synthesis
    3. intercellular transport devices
    4. membrane transmitters
    5. none of the above
    1. The significance of saltatory conduction is that it
    1. requires myelin
    2. occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier
    3. is much more rapid than non-saltatory conduction
    4. requires a great deal of salt
    5. none of the above
    1. Conduction velocity of a neuron could be increased by
    1. increasing the length of the neuron
    2. decreasing the length of the neuron
    3. increasing the magnitude of the action potential
    4. increasing the diameter of the neuron
    5. decreasing the diameter of the neuron
    1. The neuron which conducts the nerve impulse toward the synapse is termed
    1. postsynaptic
    2. presynaptic
    3. efferent
    4. motor
    5. multipolar
    1. In a chemical synapse the action potential so transmitted from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron by means of a (n)
    1. electrical connection
    2. tight junction
    3. desmosome
    4. excitatory neurotransmitter
    5. more than one is correct
    1. Which of the following is not an excitatory neurotransmitter
    1. acetylcholine
    2. norepinephrine
    3. serotonin
    4. GABA
    5. All of the above
    1. Electrical synapses have the presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron communicating by means of
    1. neurotransmitter
    2. desmosome
    3. tight junction
    4. gap junction
    5. none of the above
    1. Neural fatigue occurs because
    1. the neuron becomes exhausted of potassium
    2. the neuron becomes exhausted of sodium
    3. myelin degenerates
    4. neurotransmitter is exhausted
    5. none of the above
    1. The postsynaptic membrane potential becomes more negative is a _______ is applied.
    1. EPSP
    2. IPSP
    3. excitatory neurotransmitter
    4. positive voltage
    5. none of the above
    1. The condition by which neurotransmitter release from a given neuron is reduced by the activity of another neuron on the first neuron’s terminal filaments is known as
    1. postsynaptic inhibition
    2. presynaptic inhibition
    3. facilitation
    4. summation
    5. fatigue
    1. Which of the following substances is not a neuromodulator?
    1. endorphins
    2. ACTH
    3. Acetylcholine
    4. CCK-8
    5. Angiotensin
    1. A bundle of processes which lies in the CNS best defines a (an)
    1. nerve
    2. ganglion
    3. nucleus
    4. center
    5. none of the above
    1. The outermost of the meningeal membrane is the
    1. pia mater
    2. arachnoid
    3. subarchnoid space
    4. dura mater
    5. meningiococcus
    1. Which of the following is an embryonic region of the brain?
    1. telencephalon
    2. diencephalon
    3. metencephalon
    4. myelincephalon
    5. porsecenphalon
    1. The I and II ventricles are found in the
    1. metencephalon
    2. diencephalon
    3. cerebrum
    4. mesencephalon
    5. none of the above
    1. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the
    1. ventricles
    2. central canal
    3. aqueduct of sylvius
    4. subarachnoid space
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. CSF is reabsorbed by the
    1. choroid villi
    2. ventricles
    3. dura mater
    4. arachnoid villi (granulation)
    5. none of the above
    1. The pineal body is found in the _______ brain region
    1. telencephalon
    2. diencephalon
    3. mesencephalon
    4. metencephalon
    5. myelincephalon
    1. The dividing line between the frontal and pariental lobers of the brain is the
    1. longitudinal fissure
    2. lateral fissure
    3. central sulcus
    4. lateral sulcus
    5. insula
    1. Fibers which connect the cerebral cortex to the other parts of the CNS are termed
    1. commisural fibers
    2. association fibers
    3. projection fibers
    4. myelinated fibers
    5. gray fibers
    1. The largest band of commisural fibers make up the
    1. corpus callosum
    2. corpora quadrigemina
    3. central sulcus
    4. lateral fissure
    5. none of the above
    1. The higher intellectual functions are located on the
    1. parietal lobes
    2. frontal lobes
    3. occipital lobes
    4. temporal lobes
    5. insula
    1. The principal function of the basal ganglia is
    1. stimulation of motor functions
    2. inhibition of motor functions
    3. sensory input
    4. initiation of voluntary movement
    5. initiation of involuntary movement
    1. The internal capsule
    1. connects the diencephalon to the mesencephalon
    2. connects the cerebellum to the pons
    3. connects the cerebral cortex to the remainder of the CNS
    4. generates arousal impulses
    5. evaluates stimuli
    1. The thalamus functions as a
    1. major relay center for sensory input
    2. major relay center for motor activity
    3. center of stimulus evaluation
    4. motor coordinating center
    5. motor initiation center
    1. Which of the following do not contribute to the limbic system?
    1. cerebral cortex
    2. basal ganglia
    3. hypothalamus
    4. limbic cortex
    5. thalamus
    1. The function of the superior colliculi is
    1. auditory reflexes
    2. ocular reflexes
    3. initiation of spinal reflexes
    4. stimulus evaluation
    5. none of the above
    1. The pons functions to
    1. connect the two cerebral hemispheres together
    2. connect the thalamus to the hypothalamus
    3. connect the two cerebellar hemispheres together
    4. generate CSF
    5. produce neurotransmitters of the thalamus and cerebellum
    1. The cerebellum plays an important role in
    1. coordinating motor activity
    2. equilibrium
    3. posture
    4. balance
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. Most of the autonomic functions (heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, etc) have reflexes center located in the
    1. cerebellum
    2. medulla oblongata
    3. thalamus
    4. epithalamus
    5. corpora quadrigemina
    1. The center which maintain the aroused alert state are located in the
    1. limbic system
    2. corpora quadrigemina
    3. cerebral peduncles
    4. cerebellar peduncles
    5. reticular formation
    1. Which of the following function is not associated with the left cerebral hemisphere.
    1. language
    2. sequential processing of information
    3. logical processes
    4. perception of space
    1. The grouping of spinal nerves that forms at the bottom of the cord and projects downward is known as the
    1. filum terminale
    2. conus medularis
    3. lateral funiculus
    4. cauda equina
    5. gray commissure
    1. There are _______ pairs of lumbar nerves
    1. 8
    2. 12
    3. 5
    4. 7
    5. 1
    1. The dorsal ramus of a typical spinal nerve supplies
    1. plexuses
    2. musculature of the sternal region
    3. skin and musculature of the back region
    4. skin and musculature of the front regions
    5. none of the above
    1. The lumbrosacral plexus is made up of spinal nerves
    1. C1-C4
    2. L1-T1
    3. L1-L5
    4. L1-S1
    5. Ll-Cl
    1. There are _______ pairs of cranial nerves
    1. 10
    2. 31
    3. 12
    4. 24
    5. 8
    1. Voluntary movement is
    1. willed or conscious movement
    2. mediated exclusively by the spinal cord
    3. originates in the cerebellum
    4. originates in the reticular formation
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. In the three neuron reflex, the middle neuron is known as the
    1. receptor
    2. afferent neuron
    3. efferent neuron
    4. motor neuron
    5. interconnecting neuron
    1. When neuron E conducts an action potential, neuron C will
    1. become excited (develop an action potential)
    2. not become excited
    3. will not respond in any fashion
    4. will develop and IPSP
    5. none of the above is correct
    1. When neuron E becomes active the activity which will be initiated is
    1. extension
    2. flexion
    3. both flexion and extension
    4. the crossed extensor reflex
    5. none of the above
    1. Neuron D would most likely release the neurotransmitter
    1. glycine
    2. GABA
    3. Dopamine
    4. Acetycholine
    5. More than one of the above is correct
    1. The lateral corticospinal tracts over in the
    1. primary motor area
    2. medulla
    3. pons
    4. spinal cord
    5. none of the above
    1. Which of the following is an extracorticospinal tract?
    1. rubrospinal
    2. vestibulospinal
    3. reticulospinal
    4. spinothalamic
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. Which of the following is part of the sensory unit?
    1. receptor
    2. effector
    3. sensory neuron
    4. motor neuron
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. The conversion of one form of energy into another form best defines
    1. adaptation
    2. accommodation
    3. transduction
    4. seduction
    5. none of the above
    1. Meissner’s corpuscles function in the sensation of
    1. pressure
    2. temperature
    3. pain
    4. vision
    5. touch
    1. Free nerve endings function in the sensations of
    1. touch and pressure
    2. temperature and touch
    3. pain and temperature
    4. pain and touch
    5. temperature and pressure
    1. The spinothalamic tracts consist of a chain of _______ neurons
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 2 or 3
    5. 4
    1. The proprioreceptor which operates at the conscious level is the
    1. joint receptor
    2. tendon receptor
    3. muscle spindle
    4. paccinian corpuscle
    5. none of the above
    1. Taste receptors respond to
    1. thousands of different compounds
    2. several hundred different compounds
    3. several dozen different compounds
    4. four different classes of compounds
    5. seven different classes of compounds
    1. The outer layer of the eye is known as the
    1. choroid
    2. retina
    3. cornea
    4. cilary body
    5. sclera
    1. The part of the eye which is responsible of adjusting the diameter of the pupil is the
    1. ciliary body
    2. iris
    3. lena
    4. anterior chamber
    5. posterior chamber
    1. The area of the eye with the greatest acuity would be the
    1. blind spot
    2. fovea centralis
    3. choroid plexus
    4. cornea
    5. pupil
    1. When your eyes are focuses on an object 10 inches away, you would expect that
    1. your ciliary bodies would be relaxed
    2. the lens would be flat
    3. the ciliary bodies would be contracted
    4. the pupils would be dilated
    5. none of the above
    1. Rods function in
    1. low light vision
    2. low acuity vision
    3. black and white vision
    4. day vision
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. The osseous labyrinth of the ear consists of the
    1. vestibule
    2. semicircular canals
    3. chochlea
    4. macula
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. Which of the following is not an ear ossicle?
    1. stapes
    2. malleus
    3. incus
    4. cochlea
    5. all are ear ossicles
    1. The upper chamber of the cochlea is known as the
    1. cochlear duct
    2. scala tympani
    3. scala vestibuli
    4. scala media
    5. semicircular canal
    1. The actual conversion of pressure waves into action potentials in the ear is brought about by
    1. vibration of the oval window
    2. vibration of the round window
    3. vibration of the organ of corti
    4. movement of the macula
    5. none of the above
    1. The hair cells involved in equilibrium (static equilibrium) are found in the
    1. semicircular canals
    2. cochlea
    3. macula
    4. otoliths
    5. more than one of the above is correct
    1. The utricle and saccule are found in the
    1. cochlea
    2. middle ear
    3. outer ear
    4. semicircular canals
    5. none of the above
    1. Short term memory is most probably a function of
    1. memory molecules
    2. facilitation of pathways
    3. inhibition of pathways
    4. synthesis of RNA
    5. synthesis of DNA
    1. A disorder characterized by short, recurrent, periodic attacks of motor, sensory and/or psychological malfunction is known as
    1. cerebral palsy
    2. multiple sclerosis
    3. epilepsy
    4. myopia
    5. presbyopia
    1. Abnormally high pressure in the eye brought about by a failure of aqueous humor to drain properly leads to a condition known as
    1. myopia
    2. hyperopia
    3. glaucoma
    4. presbyopia
    5. astigmatism