a. constitute about 7.7% of total body weight

b. range between 5 to 6 liters in males

c. range between 4 to 5 liters in female

d. can be reduced by about 10% without problems

e. all of the above

33. The largest part of the dissolved solids found in plasma are (is):

1. plasma proteins
2. glucose
3. fatty acids
4. dissolved gases
5. all of the above

34. If we remove fibrinogen from plasma we have:

1. whole blood
2. defibrinogenared whole blood
3. biaxial plasma
4. serum
5. none of the above

35. The total volume of formed elements in whole blood:

1. averages about 45% in males
2. averages about 5% less in females
3. is known as the hematocrit
4. a and b
5. all of the above

36. Red blood cells:

1. contains a nucleus
2. are biconcave disks
3. are thinner at the center than at the edges
4. a and b
5. b and c

37. Red blood cell generation is stimulated by:

1. low oxygen levels in the tissues
2. erythropoeiten released by the kidney
3. living at high altitudes
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

38. Pernicious anemia is due to:

1. iron deficiency
2. fragile erythrocytes
3. inability to absorb vitamin B-12
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

39. An elevated hematocrit or red count is termed:

1. pernicious anemia
2. hemoytic anemia
3. sicle cell anemia
4. iron deficiency anemia
5. none of the above

40. Leukocytes:

1. are not capable of movement
2. move by the use of flagella or cilia
3. move by amoeboid motion
4. move only when the body is infected
5. none of the above

41. The overall function of the leukocytes is:

1. oxygen transport
2. carbon dioxide transport
3. protection
4. red cell destruction
5. none of the above

42. The function of the reticuloendothelial system is:

1. reduction of friction in blood vessels
2. purification of the body fluids
3. generation of red blood cells
4. generation of white blood cells
5. none of the above

43. The most abundant white cell is the:

1. eosinophil
2. neutrophil
3. monocyte
4. basophil
5. lymphocyte

44. The leukocyte which produces heparin and histamine is the:

1. eosinophil
2. neutrophil
3. monocyte
4. lymphocyte
5. basophil

45. The agranular leukocytes include:

1. lymphocytes
2. neutrophil
3. monocytes
4. a and c
5. all of the above

46. The origin of the granular leukocytes is:

1. the thymus and lymph nodes
2. the bone marrow
3. the spleen and liver
4. the erthrocytic old cell
5. none of the above

47. A person who had a severe reduction in white cells would suffering from:

1. leukemia
2. leukopenia
3. anemia
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

48. Thrombocytes play a role in:

1. hemostasis
2. defense against microorganisms
3. red cell generation
4. white cell generation
5. all of the above

49. Following rupture of a blood vessel the first thing that will happen is:

1. formation of a clot
2. formation of a platelet plug
3. vascular spasm (vasoconstriction)
4. clot retraction
5. none of the above

50. Orothrombin is converted into thrombin through the actions of:

1. thromboplastin
2. calcium
3. fibrinogen
4. fibrin
5. a and b

51.The conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin is catalyzed by:

1. throboplastin
2. thrombin
3. prothrombin
4. calcium
5. none of the above

52. An embolus is:

1. a surface clot
2. a clot which forms in the tissue fluid
3. a clot which forms inside of blood vessels and then moves
4. a clot which is formed without the action of thrombin
5. none of the above

53. If you had a liter of fresh whole blood and you desired to prevent it from clotting you could do this by adding:

1. citrate
2. heparin
3. calcium
4. a and b
5. all of the above

54. A person who had type AB blood would have what type antibody in his or her plasma?

1. anti A
2. anti B
3. both anti A and anti B
4. neither anti A or anti B
5. anti O only

55. The rarest blood type in the population is:

1. A
2. B
3. O
4. AB
5. AB and B are equally rare

56. The children possible for a marriage of two people with type O blood would be:

1. O and A
2. O and B
3. O and AB
4. O, A, B & AB
5. O only

57. A woman has type AB blood and a man has type O blood. The children possible from this combination would be:

1. A only
2. B only
3. A, and B only
4. A, B, and AB
5. A, B, and O

58. If type A blood were mixed with type B blood what would happen?

1. there would be no reaction
2. the type A blood would be hemolyzed (dissolved)
3. the type B blood would be hemolyzed
4. there would be agglutination due to the reactions of the blood cells with each other
5. there would be agglutination due to the reactions of the blood cells with the antibodies in the plasma

59. A person who is A positive:

1. has type A blood
2. does not have the Rh factor
3. has the Rh factor
4. a and b
5. a and c

60. Which of the following conditions might lead to erythroblastosis fetalis

1. Rh negative father and Rh positive mother
2. Rh negative father and Rh negative mother
3. Rh positive father and Rh positive mother
4. Rh positive father and Rh negative mother
5. None of the above

61. Iron in the body which is not stopred in hemoglobin is found in other organs in the forms of iron-protein complexes known as:

1. hemophilia
2. hemocytoblasts
3. ferritin
4. ferrous sulphate
5. erytropoiesis

62. The intrinsic mechanism of blood clotting does not require:

1. prothrombin
2. thrombin
3. calcium
4. thromboplastin
5. fibrinogen

63. Plasmin functions to:

1. initiated clotting
2. prevent clotting
3. retract clots
4. dissolve clots
5. neutralize bacteria

64. The process by which phagocytic cells wall off a center of infection is termed _______ formation:

1. abscess
2. granuloma
3. kinin
4. histamine
5. leukotrienes

65. The process or stimulus which results in the release of CRF by hypothalamic neurons is termed:

1. infection
2. abscess formation
3. granuloma formation
4. stress
5. none of the above

66. Physiological mechanisms which respond to stress include:

1. glucocorticoid release
2. activation of the sympathetic nervous system
3. increased levels of epinephrine
4. increased ADH levels
5. more than one of the above is correct

Bio2402: Anatomy & Physiology II - EXAM 1B

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.

1. All of the following are functions of the blood except for

1. chemical homeostasis
2. physical homeostasis
3. transport
4. heat distribution
5. distribution of neurotransmitters

2. Which of the following body blood volumes (in liters) would most likely come from a female?

1. 8.0
2. 7.5
3. 6.5
4. 6.2
5. 4.8

3. The larger fraction of normal whole blood consists of

1. red blood cells
2. plasma
3. formed elements
4. albumin
5. gamma globulins

4. Serum consists of plasma minus

1. formed elements
2. gamma globulins
3. fibrinogens
4. albumin
5. platelets

5. The most abundant protein in plasma is

1. fibrinogen
2. albumin
3. gamma globulin
4. protein hormones
5. enzymes

6. Which of the following hematocrits would most likely come male?

1. 48%
2. 40%
3. 38%
4. 35%
5. 25%

7. A healthily male would have a red blood cell count of

1. 3.0 million/cu mm.
2. 5.5 million/cu mm.
3. 5.5 billion/cu mm.
4. 5.5 thousand/cu mm.
5. 8.5 million/cu mm.

8. The original stem cell which gives rise to all other blood cells is the

1. myeloblast
2. monoblast
3. hemocytoblast
4. lymphpblast
5. megakaryocytic

9. Thrombocytes are derived directly from the

1. hemocytoblast
2. megakaryocytic
3. normoblast
4. myeloblast
5. lymphoblast

10. The red blood cell contain all of the following except for

1. hemoglobin
2. plasma membrane
3. Ribosomes
4. ATP
5. Nucleus

11. The substance released by the kidney which increases the rate of red blood cell production is

1. renin
2. angiotensin
3. erythropoitin
4. urea
5. carbon dioxide

12. Worn out red blood cells are destroyed primarily in the

1. intestine
2. kidney
3. liver
4. pancreas
5. lymphatic system

13. Anemia which is due to fragile red blood cells is termed

1. pernicious
2. aplastic
3. nutritional
4. hemolytic
5. iron deficiency

14. Which of the following might result in polycythemia?

1. long term usage of an oxygen tent]
2. living at sea level for an extended period
3. lymphatic cancer
4. living at high altitude for an extended period
5. malaria

15. A person has a white blood cell count of 25,000 per cu mm. This person would most likely be

1. male
2. female
3. very healthy
4. oxygen deficient
5. suffering from a severe bacterial infection

16. The least abundant leukocyte is the

1. eosinophil
2. basophil
3. monocyte
4. lymphocyte
5. neutrophil

17. A differential count has shown that one particular leukocyte constitutes 25% of the total white cell count. Assuming a normal person, this leukocyte is most likely a (n)

1. neutrophil
2. lymphocyte
3. basophil
4. monocyte
5. eosinophil

18. The white cell which is associated with allergies and parasitic infections is the

1. monocyte
2. eosinophil
3. neutrophil
4. basophil
5. lymphocyte

19. The white cell which exists the circulation to become a macrophage is the

1. monocyte
2. eosinophil
3. neutrophil
4. basophil
5. lymphocyte

20. Which of the following cells could develop at a site other than the bone marrow?

1. erythrocyte
2. lymphocyte
3. eosinophil
4. basophil
5. neutrophil

21. An uncontrolled proliferation of white cells would best describe

1. leukopenia
2. leukemia
3. polycythemia
4. anemia
5. polyphagia

22. Platelets function in

1. the immune response
2. phagocytosis
3. hemostaiss
4. generation of monocytes
5. typing blood

23. The substance that initiates clotting in the extrinsic mechanism is

1. factor X
2. factor XII
3. thromboplastin
4. prothrombin
5. thrombin

24. The factor that converts fibrinogen into fibrin is

1. thromboplastin
2. prothrombin
3. factor X
4. thrombin
5. factor XII

25. The enzyme that plays a key role in clot dissolution is

1. thrombin
2. prothrombin
3. thromboplastin
4. plasmin
5. alkaline phosphatase

26. A natural anticoagulant that is found in the body is

1. EDTA
2. Sodium citrate
3. Sodium oxalate
4. Plasmin
5. Heparin

27. An intravascular clot that moves is termed a (n)

1. embolus
2. thrombus
3. prothrombus
4. platelet factor
5. plasmogen

28. A women has type O blood, her husband has type AB. She has a baby that is type O. Based upon this evidence, her husband claims he is not the father. Is there any justification to his charge?

1. no, because he might be recessive for type O
2. no, because she might be recessive for type O
3. no, because O is always dominant
4. yes, because the father would have to donate at least to O genes, and being an AB, her husband has only one
5. yes, because the babies father had to donate one O gene and the husband, being AB, has not

29. Which of the following blood types would not be possible for children born from parents who were AB and A respectively?

1. O
2. AB
3. A
4. B
5. Rh positive

30. If the red blood cell contains the A antigen, then the associated plasma will contain

1. antibody A
2. antibody O
3. antibody B
4. both antibody A and B
5. both antibody B and O

31. The most common blood type in the US is

1. A
2. B
3. O
4. AB
5. Rh negative

32. Which of the following combinations might lead to erythroblastosis fetalis?

1. rh negative father and rh negative mother
2. rh negative father and rh positive mother
3. rh positive father and rh positive mother
4. rh positive father and rh negative mother

33. The rhogam shot contains

1. rh antigen
2. antibody against the rh factor
3. CMI suppressing drug
4. HMI suppressing drug
5. Rh negative blood cells

34. The first line of defense against infection for the organs that open to the outside of the body is the

1. phagocytic cells
2. skin
3. mucous membranes
4. serous membranes
5. interferon

35. The principle phagocytic cell found in the tissues is the

1. neutrophil
2. eosinophil
3. macrophage
4. basophil
5. Mast cell

36. The monocyte/ macrophage cell line makes up the

1. myeloid system
2. mononuclear phagocytic cell system (MPS, RE system)
3. granulocyte system
4. lymphocyte system
5. first line of defense

37. The redness and warmth of an inflamed area is directly due to

1. hyperemia
2. increased permeability of capillary beds
3. defensive fibrin
4. pus formation
5. chemical mediators

38. Pus formation is largely a function of

1. histamine
2. fibrinogen
3. phagocytes
4. prostaglandis
5. repair processes

39. Which of the following substances can serve to attract phagocytic cells in the inflammatory response?

1. leukotrienes
2. complement
3. prostaglandins
4. kinins
5. histamine

40. Which of the following substances, released during the inflammatory response, can initiate fever?

1. leukotrienes
2. complement
3. prostaglandins
4. kinins
5. histamine

41. The category of interferon which is produced by fibroepithelial cells is

1. alpha
2. beta
3. gamma
4. delta
5. epsilon

42. The target of NK (natural killer) cells seems to be primarily

1. soluble toxins and bacteria
2. bacteria only
3. cancer cells only
4. cancer cells and virus invaded cells
5. virus invaded cells only

43. A major reason that fever functions as a protective response is that

1. it slows down metabolic reactions permitting recovery
2. it slow down that inflammatory response
3. most disease reactions occur slower at elevated body temperatures
4. viruses do not invade body cells at higher temperatures
5. most microorganisms do not grow well at elevated temperatures

44. Immunity that is mediated by substances dissolved in the plasma is referred to as

1. cell mediated immunity
2. humoral mediated immunity
3. chemically mediated immunity
4. soluble substance immunity
5. antigen mediated immunity

45. Which of the following would probably be antigenic?

1. an inorganic molecule
2. a small organic molecule
3. a lipid
4. a protein
5. an injectable drug

46. The macrophage will present antigen directly to a (an)

1. cytotoxic T cell
2. Bcell
3. T helper cell
4. T suppressor cell
5. Neutrtophil

47. In order for a B cell to start producing antibody, it must be stimulated by

1. antigen
2. chemicals from T suppressor cells
3. chemicals from macrophages
4. antigen and chemicals from T helper cells
5. antigen and chemicals from macrophages

48. The lymphocyte that can contact and destroy other cells is the

1. T helper cell
2. cytotoxic T cell
3. B cell
4. plasma cell
5. T suppressor cell

49. You have determined that a population of cells has MHC (HLA) Class II antigens on their surface. You would conclude from this that these cells are

1. anucleate
2. T lymphocytes
3. cytotoxic T cells
4. antigen presenting cells
5. antibody producing cells

50. In order to be "read" antigen must be presented combined with

1. antibody
2. MHC antigens
3. MHC antigens
4. gamma interferon
5. interleukinn II

51. Endogenous antigen can be presented by _______ to _______.

1. macrophages, B cells
2. B cells, macrophages
3. nucleated cells, helper T cells
4. nucleated cells, cytotoxic T cells
5. anuncleated cells, helper T cells

52. Interleukin I functions to

1. initiate antibody production
2. activate B cells into plasma cells
3. convert T helper cells to T suppressor cells
4. activate helper T cells
5. instruct B cells to stop dividing

53. Cytotoxic T cells are stimulate to proliferate and grow by

1. Interleukin I
2. Interleukin II
3. BCDF
4. BCGF
5. tumor necrosis factor

54. A typical immunoglobulin would consist of

1. one heavy chain and one light chain
2. two heavy chains and one light chain
3. two heavy chains and three light chains
4. three heavy chains and three light chains
5. two heavy chains and two light chains

55. Antigen is bound to immunoglobulin at the

1. constant regions of both light and heavy chains
2. constant region of the heavy chain only
3. constant region of the light chain only
4. variable regions of both light and heavy chains
5. variable region of the light chains only

56. The immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta is

1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgD
5. IgE

57. The immunoglobulin that is secreted onto the surface areas of the body that open to the outside is

1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgD
5. IgE

58. Antibodies (immunoglobulins) that react with viruses and destroy their ability to infect cells are known as

1. neutralizing
2. opsonins
3. lysins
4. agglutinins
5. precipitins

59. Immunoglobulin that promote the lysis of cells can only function in conjunction with

1. cytotoxic T cells
2. macrophages
3. gamma interferon
4. interleukin II
5. complement

60. The complement systems participate in all of the following except.

1. lysis of cells
2. toxin inactivation
3. intiation of inflammation
4. activation of helper T cells
5. enhancement of immunoglobulin formation

61. In CMI, the target is always

1. a soluble antigen
2. a toxin
3. another cell
4. exogenous
5. non-living

62. In addition to cytotoxic T cells, _______ also play a major role as effectors of CMI

1. helper T cells
2. B cells
3. macrophages
4. plasma cells
5. immunoglobulin

63. T delayed hypersensitivity cells may be

1. either CD8 or CD4 cells
2. HMI memory cells
3. B cell activators
4. IgE stimulators
5. antibody inhibiting cells

64. The mechanism of tolerance probably is due to

1. destruction of any lymphocyte that will react with foreign antigen during embryology
2. destruction of any lymphocyte that will react with self antigens during embryology
3. population of helper T cells that will react with self antigens
4. population of B cells that will react with self antigens
5. population of macrophages that can process self antigens

65. The physical basis for immunity to an antigen that has been encounters is the presence of

1. lymphokinis
2. macrophages
3. memory lymphocytes
4. natural killer cells
5. gamma interferon

66. An example of artificial immunity would be antigen exposure by

1. an infected wound
2. eating food
3. drinking water
4. vaccination
5. sexual contact

67. The destruction of mismatched tissue grafts is largely mediated by

1. B cells
2. B cells and immunoglobulin
3. B cells and natural killer cells
4. neutrophils and eosinophils
5. cytotoxic T cells and macrophages

68. The condition in which the immune system reacts with self antigens is known as

1. graft rejection
2. delayed hypersensitivity
3. autoimmune disease
4. immediate hypersensitivity
5. artificial immunity

69. Allergies are referred to as hypersensitivities because

1. they are due to infectious organisms
2. they are cause by non-living agents
3. they represent a failure of the immune system to respond
4. they represent over reactions by the immune system
5. they are always mediated by IgD

70. In immediate hypersensitivities, immunoglobulin attaches to

1. mast cells
2. macrophages
3. helper T cells
4. cytotoxic T cells
5. B cells

71. A body wide allergic response which is mediated by IgE best defines

1. delayed hypersensitivity
2. anaphylaxis
3. graft rejection
4. cell mediated allergy
5. the tuberculin response

72. All of the following are defensive responses to cancer except for

1. destruction of tumor cells by helper T cells
2. destruction of tumor cells by cytotoxin T cells
3. destruction of tumor cells by activated macrophages
4. destruction of tumor cells by NK cells
5. lysis by antibody and complement

73. In the hemoglobin molecule, iron is found associated with

1. alpha chains only
2. beta chains only
3. one alpha and one beta chain
4. all of the heme groups
5. two of the four heme groups

74. People suffering from SCID

1. have only HMI
2. have only CMI
3. have lost all phagocytic cell activity
4. can produce IgM
5. have neither HMI or CMI

75. One chemical attribute of the skin that repels pathogenic bacteria is

1. keratin
2. lysozome in skin secretions
3. alkaline pH
4. neutral pH
5. alkaline phosphatase

76. HIV destroys the immune response by destroying

1. cytotoxic T cells
2. B cells
3. helper T cells
4. NK cells
5. macrophages

77. Secondary responses (memory) of the immune system to a given antigen are usually faster and much more intense that the initial (primary) response because

1. there is usually less antigen the second time around
2. there exist large quantities of memory cells for the antigen
3. there are large quantities of essential lymphokinis
4. B cells are more reactive
5. macrophages are present in much greater numbers

78. Anaphylaxis is an example of a type _______ immune response

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
5. V

79. Another name for type II allergic responses is

1. cytotoxic reaction
2. immune complex hypersensitivity
3. delayed hypersensitivity
4. immediate hypersensitivity
5. allergic contact dermatitis

80. All of the following are possible reasons for an autoimmune reaction except for

1. new antigens appear on the surface of body cells
2. a decrease in helper T cells has occurred
3. cross reaction of self antigens with similar foreign antigens
4. appearance of antigens that had been sequestered early in embryology
5. a deficiency in T suppressor cells