a. is a double layered membrane surrounding the heart

b. is a double layered membrane which lines the thoracic cavity

c. has an inner layer which is the same as the epicardium

d. a and c

e. b and c

2. The aorta exists the:

1. left atrium
2. left ventricle
3. right atrium
4. right ventricle
5. none of the above

3. The _______ valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle

1. aortic semilunar
2. pulmonic semilunar
3. tricuspid
4. bicuspid (mitral)
5. none of the above

4. A pacemaker is a cell which:

1. depolarizes first
2. is "leakiest" to sodium
3. establishes the rate at which the heart will contract
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

5. A heart murmur is due to:

1. valves which close very tightly
2. valves which do not close completely
3. a heart wall which is to rigid
4. a heart wall which is to distensible
5. an inability to hear the heart clearly

6. Cardiac output is equal to:

1. heart rate divided by stroke volume
2. heart rate times the filling time
3. heart rate times the EDV
4. heart rate times the ESV
5. none of the above

7. Heart rate is regulated by:

1. the cardiac inhibitor center
2. the cardiac accelerator center
3. epinephrine
4. the vagus nerve
5. all of the above

8. The End Diastolic Volume (EDV) for a given heart is 140 ml and the End Systolic Volume (ESV) is 60 ml. The stroke volume for that heart would be:

1. 70 ml
2. 80 ml
3. 60 ml
4. 50 ml
5. none of the above

9. After running a mile you would expect that stroke volume would probably:

1. increase because ESV would have decreased
2. increase because EDV has increased
3. decreased because heart rate has decreased
4. decreased because filling time decreases
5. none of the above

10. ESV may be decreased by:

1. decreasing contractility
2. increasing filling time
3. increasing contractility
4. increasing ESV
5. none of the above

11. The major factor in keeping the outputs of both the left and right ventricles equal is:

1. equal EDV
2. equal ESV
3. Starling's law of the heart
4. increased heart rate
5. all of the above

12. Fibrillation may be stopped by:

1. propping the feet higher than the head
2. injection of epinephrine
3. passing a powerful electric current through the heart
4. injections of normal saline followed by bicarbonate
5. all of the above

13. Arterioles differ from elastic arteries in that:

1. they are much smaller in diameter
2. they have much more smooth muscle and much less elastic tissue
3. they carry blood away from the heart
4. a and b
5. a and c

14. An increase in diameter if the lumen of an arteriole would be referred to as:

1. vasoconstriction
2. vasodilatation
3. increased peripheral resistance
4. increased blood pressure
5. none of the above

15. The structure of capillaries consists of:

1. a tunica media only
2. a tunica adventitia only
3. a tunica intima only
4. a single layer of smooth muscle cells
5. none of the above

16. The internal carotid arteries divide to form the:

1. anterior cerebral arteries
2. middle cerebral arteries
3. posterior cerebral arteries
4. a and b
5. a and c

17. A blockage of a cerebral artery would result in a (an):

1. heart attack
2. stroke
3. fever
4. tumor
5. none of the above

18. The pressure in an artery is 120mm Hg. The total resistance offered to flow in that artery is equal to 10mm Hg. The flow would be _______ unit per time.

1. 120
2. 110
3. 1/12
4. 12
5. none of the above

19. The pressure at the beginning of an artery is 120mm Hg and at the end of that artery it is down to 60mm. The other 60mm of pressure was lost:

1. in keeping the artery from collapsing
2. as heat to the environment
3. in overcoming the resistance offered to blood flow by that artery
4. in creating resistance to blood flow in that artery
5. none of the above

20. Pulse pressure is equal to:

1. systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
2. systolic pressure divided by two
3. systolic pressure multiplied by two
4. systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
5. none of the above

21. Increased cardiac output will usually result in:

1. increased peripheral resistance
2. decreased peripheral resistance
3. change in peripheral resistance
4. decreased blood pressure
5. none of the above

22. Venous pressure in the feet would be highest in:

1. a reclining person
2. a sitting person
3. a standing person
4. a person standing on his / her head
5. any of the above

23. The major froce responsible for returning blood to the heart is generated by:

1. the pumping action of the heart
2. siphon action
3. pumping action of the skeletal muscle
4. unknown
5. none of the above

24. The build up of rough places inside of arteries which can restrict flow is known as:

1. arteriosclerosis
2. atherosclerosis
3. hypercholesterolonemia
4. scarring
5. thrombosus

25. Shock is defined as:

1. insufficient cardiac output
2. decreased blood pressure
3. a nervous disorder
4. a severe fright
5. none of the above

26. Hypertension is hazardous to good health because:

1. it causes people to be to excitable
2. it decreases the work load on the heart
3. it increases the work load on the heart
4. it can lead to collapsed arteries
5. all of the above

27. A person standing perfectly still for an extended period of time might faint because of:

1. reduced blood pressure to the head region
2. pooling of blood in the legs
3. reduced cardiac output
4. reduced venous return
5. all of the above

28. Which of the following is a function of lymph system?

1. return fluid to the circulation
2. filtration and purification of tissue fluid
3. production of lymphocytes
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

29. Fluid leaves the capillary beds and moves into the tissue because

1. hydrostatic pressure exceeds the osmotic pressure of the blood
2. the capillaries are permeable to water and small molecules
3. the osmotic pressure of the blood is greater than the hydrostatic pressure
4. a and b
5. all of the above

30. When the normal pacemaker region of the heart is lost which of the following will occur?

1. heart will beat arythmetically
2. myocardium will immediately take over pacemaker function
3. another portion of the conduction system will take over pacemaker function
4. artira will contract 4 times for every ventricular contraction
5. heart will stop beating

31. Which of the following sequences is correct for the conduction of the contraction wave throughout the heart.

1. AV node- SA node bundles of hiss-left and right bundles - purkinje fibers
2. AV node- SA node bundle of hiss-purkinje fibers -left and right bundles
3. SA node bundle of hiss-AV node left and right bundle purkinje fibers
4. SA node atria AV node bundle of his left and right bundle purkinje fibers
5. SA node atria AV node left and right bundles- bundle of hiss - purkinje finer

32. The EKG represents

1. the actual contraction of the heart
2. the electrical changes which occur in the heart during the cardiac cycle
3. the electrical changes which occur in the aorta during the cardiac cycle
4. a and b
5. and c

33. The heart is considered a functional syncitium because

1. the individual cells have no cell membranes separating them
2. the resolute refractory period is very long
3. the depolarization waves move across the heart musculature as if it were a single cell
4. The depolarization wave moves from cell to cell in the same manner as it does in skeletal muscle
5. all of the above

34. Starling's law

1. states that the heart pumps all of the blood which it receives
2. states that with reference to the heart output equal input
3. has as its physiological basis the fact that increasing the initial length of the muscle fibers results in increased force of contraction
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

35. A coronary oculsion is:

1. blockage in a coronary vessel
2. often caused by a thrombosis
3. a leading cause of "heart attacks"
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

36. One of the major cause of both coronary oclusion and hypertension is

1. increased sympathetic activity
2. arteriosclerosis
3. renal failure
4. a and b
5. b and c

37. Angina pectoris is

1. a pain felt in the center of the heart due to ischemia
2. a pain generally referred to the chest surface and left arm due to cardiac ischemia
3. a pain felt in the big toe due dilation of the metarterioles
4. a weaking in the wall of the aorta
5. none of the above

38. During the cardiac cycle, the AV valves:

1. open and close before the semilunar valves
2. open and close after the semilunar valves
3. open and close at the same time as do the semilunar valves
4. open and close before the semilunar valves
5. none of the above

39. The aortic semilunar valve opens when

1. the pressure in the left ventricle is greater than that of the right ventricle
2. the pressure in the right ventricle is greater than that of the pulmonary artery
3. the pressure in the left ventricle is greater than that in the aorta
4. the pressure in the left ventricle is greater than that of left atrium
5. the pressure in the left ventricle equals that of the left atria

40. The first heart sound is due to

1. opening of the AV valves
2. closing of the AV valves
3. opening of the semilunar valves
4. closing of the semilunar valves
5. leakage of the AV valves

41. Arteries differ from veins in that

1. veins lack the tunica itima
2. veins lack the tunica media
3. veins lack the tunica adventitia
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

42. An increase in blood pressure would result in an _____ in activity of the barorectopers.

1. increase
2. decrease
3. no change

43. An increase in blood pressure would result in an ________ in activity of the vasomotor center.

1. increase
2. decrease
3. no charge

44. Shock refers to

1. loss of blood pressure
2. decrease in cardiac output
3. a neurological "short circuit"
4. a severe trauma
5. none of the above

45. The 2 major phases of cardiac activity are

1. systole and contraction
2. diastole and relaxation
3. systole and diastole
4. contraction and relaxation
5. c and d

46. The valves are prevented from swinging back into the atria during ventricular systole by:

1. the chordae teninae
2. the papillary muscles
3. the semilunar valves
4. a and b
5. a and c

47. Which of the following pathways is correct for a drop of blood in the capillaries of the small intestines to feed back tot he right side of the heart.

1. splenic vein- hepatic vein- inf. cava
2. spelinic vein- portal vein- inf. Cava
3. splenic vein- inf. mesentenic- hepatic vein- inf cava
4. sup. Mesenteric vein hepatic vein- inf cava
5. sup. Mesenteric vein - portal vein- heptic vein - inf cava

48. In the foetal circulation, blood is shunted by the pulmonary circulation into the systemic circulation by

1. the ductus arteriosus
2. the foramen ovale
3. the ductus venosus
4. all of the above
5. a and b

49. The 2 branches of the circulatory system are

1. the systemic and lymphatic
2. the pulmonary and lymphatic
3. the systemic and pulmonary
4. the systemic and coronary
5. none of the above

50. The 3 layers of the heart are

1. epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
2. epicardium, myocardium, theocardium
3. myocardium, endocardium, mucocardium
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

51. Oxygen rich blood is carried to the fetus from the placenta by

1. the umbilical cord
2. the ductus venosus
3. the foremant ovale
4. the ductus arteriosus
5. none of the above

52. The pulmonary circulation

1. begins at the right heart and ends at the left heart side
2. begins at the left heart side and ends at the right heart side
3. begins at the right heart and ends at the right heart
4. begins at the left heart and ends at the left heart
5. one of the above

53. The heart muscles receives blood for its own use from

1. the walls of the left ventricle
2. the walls of the right ventricle
3. the walls of the left atrium
4. the walls of the right atrium
5. the coronary circulation

54. Tentany and Summation are 2 phenomena which occurs in skeletal muscle but not in cardiac muscle because of the

1. length of the absolute refractory period
2. nature of the intercalated disks
3. pericardial membranes
4. conduction system
5. all of the above

55. The heart beat probably results from:

1. cells which spontaneously depolarize because they are leaky to potassium
2. cells which spontaneously depolarize because they are leaky to calcium
3. cells which spontaneously depolarize because they are leaky to sodium
4. nervous stimulation from the sympathetic nerves
5. nervous stimulation from the parasympathetic nerves

56. The correct pathway for a drop of blood on its passage through the heart beginning at the right atrium would be:

1. RA-RN-aorta- lungs- pulmonary veins- La-Lv pulmonary artery
2. RA-LN -aorta- lungs-pulmonary veins LA-LV aorta
3. RA-LV- aorta- lungs- pulmonary veins LV-LA aorta
4. RA-RV -pulmonary artery- lungs- pulmonary veins- LA-LV- aorta
5. None of the above

57. An increase in peripheral resistance would result in

1. a decease in blood pressure
2. an increase in blood pressure
3. no change in blood pressure
4. a or b depending on whether standing or sitting
5. none of the above

58. The lymphatic system functions to

1. return tissue fluid to the circulation
2. cleans the tissue fluid
3. play a role in the immune response
4. all of the above
5. none of the above

59. A heart block is

1. a blockage in the conductance system
2. a major source of heart disorders
3. usually reflected by 2, 4, or more beats of the atria for every ventricular bet (providing the block is at the AV node and is partial)
4. all of the above

60. Generally, speaking, venous pressure is:

1. less than arterial pressure
2. greater than arterial pressure
3. no different than arterial pressure
4. higher in the morning than in the evening
5. higher in the head than the feet

Bio2402: Anatomy & Physiology II - EXAM 2B

Choose the best answer.

1. The systemic circuit of the circulation sends blood to the

1. brain
2. hand
3. foot
4. liver
5. more than one is correct

2. The heart is found in a space termed the

1. peritoneum
2. mediastinum
3. pelvic cavity
4. perithecium
5. none of the above

3. The pulmonary artery exits

1. left atrium
2. right atrium
3. left ventricle
4. right ventricle
5. none of the above

4. The pulmonary veins enter the

1. left atrium
2. right atrium
3. left ventricle
4. right ventricle
5. none of the above

5. The innermost layer of the heart is the

1. epicardium
2. myocardium
3. endocardium
4. visceral pericardium
5. more than one is correct

6. The tough fibrous layer of membrane forms the

1. visceral pericardium
2. parietal pericardium
3. epicardium
4. endocardium
5. myocardium

7. Beginning in the vena cava, the first valve that a drop of blood will pass through on its way through the heart will be the

1. vena caval valve
2. bicuspid valve
3. pulmonic semilunar valve
4. tricuspid valve
5. aortic semilunar valve

8. The valves that separate the ventricles from the two major arteries are the

1. atrioventricular valves
2. semilunar valves
3. tricuspid valves
4. mitral valves
5. bicuspid valves

9. Valves function in the heart to

1. expedite the back flow of blood
2. block blood flow from the atrium to the pulmonary veins
3. block blood flow from the atrium to the vena cava
4. prevent the back flow of valves
5. more than one is correct

10. The chordae tendineae are anchored to the

1. papillary muscles
2. atrial myocardium
3. walls of the vena cava
4. walls of the pulmonary veins
5. more than one is correct

11. The all or none principal as applied to the heart states

1. the heart must receive a nerve impulse before contraction can occur
2. the nerve impulse received by the heart varies in amplitude
3. the contraction strength of the heart varies with the amplitude of the depolarization wave
4. when the heart begins to contract completely or not at all
5. none of the above

12. The heart is considered to be a functional syncitum because

1. action potentials cannot move from cell to cell
2. action potentials can move only through the septal material
3. action potentials can move across the heart as is it were a single cell.
4. action potentials move across the myocardium as fi it were composed of many cells
5. none of the above

13. The connecting units which permits free movement of the depolarization wave across the intercalculated disks is (are) the

1. desmosomes
2. gap junctions
3. tight junction
4. brush junctions
5. more than one of the above is correct

14. Compared to skeletal muscle, the refractory period of cardiac muscle is

1. slightly longer
2. slightly shorter
3. much longer
4. much shorter
5. about the same

15. The initiation of the heart depolarization probably results from

1. a slow inward leak of sodium
2. a slow inward leak of potassium
3. a slow inward leak of calcium
4. a rapid outward flow of sodium
5. more than one is correct

16. The cell which first depolarizes in the heart is termed the

1. early bird
2. pacemaker
3. hyperpolarized cell
4. AV node
5. Bundle of His

17. The heart beat originates in the

1. SA node
2. AV node
3. Left bundle
4. Purkingee fiber
5. STP node

18. The last conducting elements of the cardiac conducting system are (is) the

1. right bundle
2. left bundle
3. center bundle
4. Purkingee fibers
5. AV node

19. If the normal pacemaker of the heart is lost, the ______ will take over next.

1. bundle of His
2. SA node
3. AV node
4. Left bundle
5. Right bundle

20. The P wave of a typical EKG represents the

1. depolarization of the ventricles
2. repolarization of the atria
3. repolarization of the ventricles
4. depolarization of the atria
5. none of the above

21. The depolarization of the ventricles is represented by the

1. P wave
2. T wave
3. P - T wave
4. QRS wave
5. None of the above

22. Which of the following can be determined from an EKG?

1. heart rate
2. heart rhythmically
3. presence of ischemia
4. presence of scar tissue
5. more than one is correct

23. The AV valves close when the pressure in the

1. atria exceeds that of the ventricles
2. ventricles exceeds that of the atria
3. aorta exceeds that of the pulmonary artery
4. atria exceeds that of the vena cava
5. none of the above

24. When the aortic pressure exceeds that of the left ventricle, the

1. AV valve close
2. AV valves open
3. Semilunar valves open
4. Semilunar valves close
5. None of the above

25. The first heart sound is due to the

1. closing of the semilunar valves
2. opening of the semilunar valves
3. closing of the AV valves
4. opening of the AV valves
5. more than one is correct

26. The total volume of blood pumped per minute per ventricle best defines

1. stroke volume
2. stroke rate
3. cardiac output
4. cardiac cycle
5. none of the above

27. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart results in

1. decreased heart rate
2. decreased stroke volume
3. increased heart rate
4. slow down of pacemaker activity
5. none of the above

28. The stroke volume may be increased by

1. parasympathetic stimulation
2. decreased levels of norepinephrine
3. increased levels of epinephrine
4. decreased levels of sympathetic stimulation
5. more than one is correct

29. All tings being equal, an increase in venous return will cause an increase in

1. cardiac output
2. EDV
3. Stroke volume
4. Heart rate
5. More than one is correct

30. The major factor in decreasing ESV is

1. increased contractility
2. decreased contractility
3. Marey's law
4. Starling's law
5. The Peter principle

31. The EDV is 150 and the ESV is 75. Heart rate is 80 BPM. Cardiac output will be

1. 5000 ml
2. 3000 ml
3. 5500ml
4. 6000 ml
5. none of the above

32. The maintenance of proper balance in terms of volume output between the 2 sides of the heart is a function of

1. Marey's law
2. Starling's Law
3. Thielengerde's law
4. Dolland's law
5. Krivanik's law

33. The circunflex artery is derived from the

1. right coronary artery
2. left coronary artery
3. anterior intervenricular artery
4. coronary sinus
5. none of the above

34. Parial blockage of a coronary artery results in

1. angina pectoris
2. heart murmur
3. 3:1 blocks
4. PVC
5. Ectopic focus

35. The loss of rhythmic contraction by the heart that frequently follows a heart attack is known as

1. ectopic focus
2. PVC
3. Fibrillation
4. Defibrillation
5. Angina pectoris

36. The sequence of blood in the body usually follows the sequence

1. artery, vennule, capillary
2. artery-capillary-vein
3. artery-capillary-artery-capillary vein
4. artery-sinus-capillary-vein
5. capillary-artery-vein

37. Which of the following lacks a tunica intima?

1. elastic arteries
2. muscular arteries
3. arterioles
4. capillaries
5. none of the above

38. The vessel type which has a tunica media made up of smooth muscle exclusively is the

1. muscular artery
2. elastic artery
3. arteriole
4. vein
5. capillary

39. An increase in the diameter for the lumen (opening) of a blood vessel would be termed

1. vasoconstriction
2. vasodilatation
3. vasomodulation
4. vasomotor
5. none of the above

40. Metarterioles connect

1. arteries to sinuses
2. arterioles to vennules
3. sinuses to veins
4. capillaries to veins
5. none of the above

41. Flow into the capillary bed is controlled by the

1. vennule
2. metarteriole
3. precapillary sphincter
4. postcapillary sphincter
5. elastic arteries

42. Which of the following does not contribute to the hepatic portal system

1. superior mesenteric vein
2. superior mesenteric artery
3. inferior mesenteric vein
4. splenic vein
5. hepatic portal vein

43. The basilar artery is formed from

1. the fusion of the common carotids
2. the fusion of the internal carotids
3. the fusion of the vertebral arteries
4. the fusion of the posterior communication arteries
5. none of the above

44. Blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta in the fetus by the

1. foramen ovale
2. ductus arteriosus
3. ductus venosus
4. ligamentum arteriosus
5. more than one of the above is correct

45. Blood flows faster in the aorta that in the capillaries because

1. the capillaries are smaller in diameter than the aorta
2. the aorta is larger in diameter than the capillaries
3. resistance to flow is greater in the aorta
4. resistance to flow is greater in the capillaries
5. the total cross sectional area of the capillaries exceeds that of the aorta

46. In order for flow to occur

1. pressure must exceed resistance
2. resistance must exceed pressure
3. flow rate must be greater that both pressure and resistance
4. resistance divided by pressure must always exceed 1
5. more than one of the above is correct

47. Mean arterial pressure is equal to

1. cardiac output divided by resistance
2. cardiac output plus resistance
3. cardiac output minus resistance
4. cardiac output times resistance
5. none of the above

48. The resistance offered to blood flow by a vessel may be increased by

1. increasing the diameter of the vessel
2. decreasing the diameter of the vessel
3. vasodilation
4. decreasing the length of the vessel
5. more than one of the above is correct

49. Which of the following is usually the larger number?

1. systolic pressure
2. diastolic pressure
3. mean arterial pressure
4. pulse pressure
5. none of the above

50. Of the following factor known to affect blood pressure, which is the most important in maintaining diastolic pressure?

1. blood volume
2. cardiac output
3. elasticity
4. viscosity
5. gravity

51. An increase in blood pressure will cause

1. a decrease in baroreceptor activity
2. an increase in vasomotor activity
3. vasoconstriction
4. a decrease in cardiac, accelerator activity
5. more than one of the above is correct

52. An increase in vasomotor activity causes

1. an increase in peripheral resistance
2. vasoconstriction
3. an increase in blood pressure
4. decreased vasodilation
5. more than one of the above is correct

53. An increase in peripheral resistance will result in

1. decreased blood pressure
2. increased baroreceptor activity
3. increased vasomotor activity
4. increased cardiac accelerator activity
5. none of the above is correct

54. Increased baroreceptor activity

1. decreases vasomotor activity
2. increases cardiac inhibitory center activity
3. decreases cardiac accelerator center activity
4. decreases peripheral resistance
5. more than one of the above is correct

55. Angiotensin causes

1. increased water and salt retention
2. increased vasoconstriction
3. increased blood pressure
4. increased blood flow
5. more than one of the above is correct

56. Local control of blood flow results from

1. vasomotor activity
2. the Angiotensin system
3. reduced baroreceptor activity
4. tissue control of arteriole diameter
5. more than one of the above is correct

57. Venous pressure is greater in the feet of a standing person that in their should because of

1. increased vasomotor activity
2. increased Angiotensin levels
3. increased peripheral resistance in the feet
4. gravity acting on the column of blood
5. more than one of the above is correct

58. Blood returns to the heart by means of

1. siphon action
2. milking action of the skeletal muscles
3. changes in thoracic pressure
4. body motion
5. more than one of the above is correct

59. Fainting will result whenever

1. a person becomes overly tired
2. a person stands in one position for too long
3. a severe shock occurs
4. blood pressure in the brain is too low for adequate perfusion
5. blood flow to the brain is much greater than is requires for normal activity

60. Under normal conditions, approximately ___ of the blood volume is found in the systemic arteries.

1. 64%
2. 15%
3. 7%
4. 5%
5. 9%

61. At the capillaries, fluid moves from the blood to the tissues when,

1. hydrostatic pressure is less than osmotic pressure
2. hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure
3. hyfrostatic pressure equals osmotic pressure
4. capillary permeablitlty increases above normal
5. capillary permeability decreases to below normal

62. Tissue fluid is drawn back into capillary when

a. the osmotic pressure becomes less than the hydrostatic pressure

2. osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure
3. capillary permeability is less than that of the lymphatics
4. capillary permeability is greater than that of the lymphatics
5. none of the above

63. The lymphatic system begins with

1. lymphatic arteries
2. lymphatic veins
3. lymphatic organs
4. lymph nodes
5. lymphatic capillaries

64. A major function of the lymphatic system is

1. generation of erythrocytes
2. generation of granulocytes
3. filtration of tissue fluid
4. production of complement
5. none of the above

65. Which of the following systolic pressures would be considered hypertensive?

1. 110
2. 120
3. 130
4. 140
5. 150

66. Hypertension due to unknown causes is termed?

1. renal
2. essential
3. crypto
4. necessary
5. unknown

67. Which of the following are associated with atherosclerosis?

1. outgrowth of smooth muscle
2. elevated cholesterol levels in the plasma
3. occlusion of arteries
4. heart attacks
5. more than on eof the above is correct

68. Reduced cardiac output best describes

1. edema
2. atherosclerosis
3. arteriosclerosis
4. shock
5. none of the above

69. A dramatic reduction in plamsa proteins can result in

1. atherosclerosis
2. arteriosclerosis
3. edema
4. heartbreak of psoriasis
5. more than one is correct

70. Regular aerobic exercise results in

1. increased cardiac output
2. increased stroke volume
3. decreased blood pressure
4. increased cardiac efficiency
5. more than one is correct

71. According to Marey's law, when heart rate is high

1. blood pressure will be high
2. blood pressure will be low
3. blood pressure will not be affected
4. pulse pressure will be weak
5. the pulse will be slow

72. Echocardiography utilizes

1. X-rays
2. Electrical pickups
3. Position emission
4. Ultrasound
5. None of the above

73. Which of the following is s risk factor of heart disease?

1. high plamsa cholesterol
2. cigarette smoking
3. obesity
4. lack of exercise
5. more than one is correct

74. Which of the following arteries can be used to check the pulse?

1. temporal
2. facial
3. brachial
4. popiteal
5. more than one is correct

75. Which of the following is not associated with aging?

1. loss of extensibility
2. reduction in cardiac muscle cell size
3. reduced cardiac output
4. increase in coronary artery disease
5. increase in cardiac muscle cell strength