HUMAN ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY B2402

EXAM 4

 

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.

  1. Endocrine glands are those which
    1. release their hormones via a duct
    2. are composed of stratified squamous epithelium
    3. receive their hormones into the blood stream
    4. more than one of the above
  2. The target tissue for a particular hormone would be tissue which
    1. come in contact with the hormone
    2. does not come in contact with the hormone
    3. is not influenced by the hormone
    4. is influenced by the hormone
    5. more than one of the above is correct
  3. The endocrine system functions in the areas of
    1. control
    2. communication
    3. integration
    4. alteration of cellular metabolism
    5. more than one is correct
  4. The endocrine system is considered to be an integrating system because it
    1. completely regulates the nervous system
    2. is completely regulated by the nervous system
    3. coordinates the activities of a wide range of tissues
    4. can influence cellular metabolism
    5. releases hormones
  5. The definition of a hormone would include all of the following except
    1. it is a chemical substance
    2. it is released by a tissue but affects a distant tissue
    3. it alters cell metabolism
    4. is must be a steroid
  6. In hormone controlled system, a second messenger is
    1. the hormone proper
    2. a chemical which acts synergistically with the hormone
    3. a chemical with opposes the normal action of the hormone
    4. a chemical which is activated by the hormone and carries out the hormonal instructions inside of a cell
    5. more than one of the above is correct
  7. The second messenger in the fixed receptor model is
    1. ATP
    2. Adenyl cyclase
    3. Cyclic AMP
    4. Protein kinase
    5. Epinephrine
  8. Adenyl cyclase in located
    1. on the outside of the cell membrane
    2. in the interstital fluid
    3. in the blood
    4. bound to the inside of the cell membrane
    5. in the non-protein portion of the hormone
  9. In the fixed receptor model, the second messenger acts by
    1. inducing the synthesis of new protein
    2. increasing the synthesis of RNA
    3. increasing the synthesis of DNA
    4. activating proteins already in the cell
    5. phosphorylating ADP to yield ATP
  10. Hormone which operate through the mobile receptor model include
    1. amino acids
    2. proteins
    3. steroids
    4. carbohydrates
    5. tripeptides
  11. The steroid hormones alter cellular activity by
    1. activating proteins which are present in cells
    2. genetic induction (activating DNA)
    3. depressing RNA synthesis
    4. blocking the activity the tRNA
    5. more than one is correct
  12. Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system
    1. affects more tissue
    2. responds much faster
    3. responds more extensively to the external environment
    4. is and on-off switch
    5. none of the above
  13. The hormones produced by the adenohypophyisis include all of the following except
    1. oxytocin
    2. FSH
    3. Prolactin
    4. Growth hormone
    5. LH
  14. The brain exercise control over the release of the adenopophyseal hormones by means of
    1. inhibiting factors released by nerve cells
    2. releasing factors released by nerve cells
    3. the hypothalamic portal system
    4. nervous stimulation
    5. more than one is correct
  15. The neurohyposyeal hormones are produced in the
    1. neurohypophysis
    2. adenphuypophysis
    3. hypophysis
    4. nerve cells of the hypothalamus
    5. glial cells of the hypothalamus
  16. The nerohypophseal hormones are transported to their site of release by means of
    1. the hypothalamus- hypophyseal portal system
    2. axons form the hypothalamus
    3. glial cells
    4. macrophages
    5. none of the above
  17. Adenohypophseal hormones which are regulated through the long loop have as their target tissue
    1. nervous system
    2. other endocrine glands
    3. the liver
    4. the adrenal medulla
    5. the kidney
  18. When the cells which produced ADH begin to swell, they respond by
    1. increasing ADH secretion
    2. decreasing ADH secretion
    3. increasing the number of action potentials on themselves per second
    4. releasing anti ADH factor in to the portal system
    5. none of the above
  19. The target tissue of ACTH is the
    1. thyroid
    2. adrenal medulla
    3. adrenal cortex
    4. gonads
    5. parathyroids
  20. High levels of TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone) in the blood stream would result in
    1. decreased levels of TSH
    2. decreased levels of thyroxine
    3. increased levels of thyroxine
    4. decreased levels of PTH
    5. more than one is correct
  21. overproduction of growth hormone during the adult years leads to
    1. giatism
    2. midgets
    3. acromegaly
    4. Addison’s disease
    5. Genital herpes
  22. Oxytonin causes
    1. vasodilatation
    2. uterine contraction
    3. water reabsorption
    4. milk production
    5. vitamin deficiency
  23. Aldosterone causes
    1. reasbdorption of sodium from the kidney tubules
    2. secretion of calcium by the kidney tubules
    3. reabsoption of calcium by the kidney tubules
    4. secretion of hydrogen ion by the kidney tubules
    5. none of the above
  24. A person is suffering from hypocalcemia (low serum calcium) . W hat would predict that
    1. epinephrine levels would be high
    2. PTH levels would be low
    3. Thyroxine leaves would be high
    4. Norepinephrine levels would be low
    5. LH levels would be high
  25. The hormone which causes an overall increase in cellular metabolic rate is
    1. thyroxine
    2. epinephrine
    3. PTH
    4. Growth hormone
    5. Calcitonin
  26. Insulin
    1. expedites transport of glucose in to the cells
    2. lowers blood sugar
    3. promotes lipid formation
    4. is composed of 2 polypeptide chains
    5. more than one is correct
  27. Underproduction of insulin leads to
    1. Addison’s disease
    2. Cushing’s syndrome
    3. Diabetes inpipidus
    4. Diabetes melitus
    5. Portnoy’s complaint
  28. The small glands which is located in the upper thalamic region and which is thought to have an endocrine function is the
    1. pituitary gland
    2. pineal gland
    3. thymus glands
    4. parathyroid gland
    5. optic gland
  29. Thymosin is thought to cut by
    1. converting immature lymphocytes into T cells
    2. stimulating red blood cell production
    3. regulating reproductive periods
    4. altering digestion
    5. none of the above
  30. Red blood cell production is stimulated by
    1. thymosin
    2. prostaglandin E
    3. erthorpoietin
    4. renin
    5. epinephrine
  31. Which of the following is not a class of prostaglandins?
    1. PGA
    2. PGB
    3. PGE
    4. PGF
    5. All of the above
  32. Underproduction of the adrenal cortex leads to
    1. Grave’s disease
    2. Goiter
    3. Addision’s disease
    4. Cushing’s syndrome
    5. Hyperglycemia
  33. Which of the following situations would or could lead to goiter?
    1. overproduction of TRH
    2. overproduction of TSH
    3. iodine deficiency
    4. underproduction of thyroxine
    5. more than one
  34. The pouch which the tests reside in is known as the
    1. tunica albuninea
    2. rete tests
    3. scrotum
    4. epididymis
    5. none of the above
  35. The connective tissue capsule which surrounds each teste is known as the
    1. tunica albuginea
    2. scrotum
    3. rete testis
    4. vas deferens
    5. epididymis
  36. The ventral column of erectile tissue through which the urethra passes is known as the
    1. corpora cavernosa
    2. corpus spongiosum
    3. corpus delicti
    4. corpora erectus
    5. corpus gorgeosus
  37. Which of the following would not result in erection in males?
    1. parasympathetic stimulation to the arterioles of the penis
    2. sexually psychic stimuli
    3. tactile stimuli to the penis
    4. increased blood flow into the erectile tissue
    5. sympathetic stimulation to the arterioles of the penis
  38. The structure which functions as the storage site for sperm is the
    1. seminiferous tubules
    2. interstitial cells
    3. epididymis
    4. tunica albuginea
    5. rete testis
  39. Activation of sperm into the swimming state is brought about by
    1. contact with fluid from the seminal vesicles
    2. contact with prostate fluid
    3. contact with bulbourethral fluid
    4. prostaglandis
    5. psychic stimuli
  40. In males, FSH stimulates
    1. production of testosterone
    2. the interstitial cells
    3. spermatogenesis
    4. release of LH
    5. more than one of the above is correct
  41. In males, LH secretion is inhibited by
    1. FSH
    2. Inhibin
    3. Testosterone
    4. Estrogen
    5. Progesterone
  42. Production of sperms requires
    1. FSH
    2. LH
    3. Testosterone
    4. Inhibin
    5. More than one of the above is correct
  43. Release of the gonadotropins is stimulated by
    1. FSH
    2. LH
    3. Inhibin
    4. Gn-RH
    5. Somatostatin
  44. Which of the following is not a function of testosterone
    1. maturation of the genitals
    2. initiation of body hair growth
    3. stimulation of enlargement of the breast
    4. initiation of lowering of the voice
    5. initiation of male muscular patterns
  45. The region of the ovary in which primary follicles are found is the
    1. germinal epithelium
    2. tunica albuginea
    3. cortex
    4. medulla
    5. fimbriae
  46. The uterine (fallopian) tubes are lined by
    1. stratified squamous epithelium
    2. simple squamous epithelium
    3. ciliated columnar epithelium
    4. cuboidal epithelium
    5. serous membranes
  47. The structure in the female genitalia which is homologous to the penis in males is the
    1. labia majora
    2. labia minora
    3. mons pubis
    4. clitoris
    5. vestibule
  48. The mammary glands drain to the nipple via
    1. the areola
    2. blood vessels
    3. lactiferous ducts
    4. pseudoducts
    5. adipose tissue
  49. During female sexual arousal
    1. the clitoris becomes erect
    2. erectile tissue narrows the vaginal opening
    3. the lining of the vagina becomes lubricated
    4. glands around the cervix and vestibule secrete fluids
    5. more than one of the above is correct
  50. The ovarian follicle matures under the stimulation of
    1. FSH
    2. LH
    3. Estrogen
    4. Progesterone
    5. Gn-RH
  51. The secretory apparatus in the breast develops under the stimulation of
    1. FSH
    2. LH
    3. Estrogen
    4. Progesterone
    5. Gn-RH
  52. During the menstrual cycle, ovulation is caused principally by a larged increase in
    1. FSH
    2. LH
    3. Estrogen
    4. Inhibin
  53. At the beginning of the menses
    1. all hormone levels are high
    2. only FSH is high
    3. FSH and LH are high
    4. Estrogen and progesterone are high
    5. None of the above
  54. The corpus luteum produces
    1. FSH
    2. LH
    3. Progesterone
    4. Estrogen
    5. More than one of the above is correct
  55. During the second half of the cycle, both FSH and LH fell off. This is because
    1. neural-reflexes block the release of Gn-RH
    2. low levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit FSH and LH
    3. high levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit FSH and LH
    4. high levels of estrogen alone will inhibit FSH and LH
    5. none of the above
  56. Menopause is thought to be due to
    1. loss of ability on the part of the ovary to produce estrogen
    2. loss of ability of the part of the ovary to produce progesterone
    3. loss of responsiveness of the ovaries to the gonadotropins
    4. atrophy of estrogen dependent tissues
    5. atrophy of progesterone dependent tissues
  57. A cell is known to contain 50 chromosomes. If undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain?
    1. 50
    2. 25
    3. 100
    4. 125
    5. 150
  58. Down syndrome is due to
    1. doubling of the chromosome number during meiosis
    2. a defective gene on the 21 chromosome
    3. an extra 21 chromosome
    4. failure of the sex cells to undergo meiosis
    5. loss of a chromosome from the sperm during fertilization
  59. During spermatogenesis, which of the following cells is diploid?
    1. spermatid
    2. sperm
    3. secondary spermatocycte
    4. primary spermatocyte
    5. all of the above are diploid
  60. In humans the alantois and yolk sacs are located
    1. beneath the chorion
    2. inside of the amnion
    3. in the umbilical cord
    4. outside of the uterus
    5. in the myometrium
  61. A hormone produced by the placenta but not by the ovary is
    1. estrogen
    2. progesterone
    3. HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)
    4. FSH
    5. Testosterone
  62. At the time of parturition
    1. progesterone levels decrease
    2. estrogen
    3. oxytocin levels increase
    4. relaxin is produced
    5. more than one of the above is correct
  63. Two female babies are born at the same time from the same woman. Each has its own placenta. You would conclude that they are most likely
    1. identical
    2. fraternal
    3. cannot be determined with the information provided
    4. cannot be determined until after a few months and one can see if they look exactly alike or different
    5. identical providing the larger one were born first
  64. Excluding sterilization, the most effective means of contraception is
    1. IUD
    2. condom
    3. birth control pill
    4. douches
    5. coitus interuptus
  65. Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum is termed
    1. non-disjuntion
    2. failed descent
    3. descent with modification
    4. cryptoorchidism
    5. necrophiliac
  66. If the testes are retained in the body cavity it normally results in sterility. This is because
    1. spermatogenesis requires the open air
    2. spermatogenesis cannot proceed at body temperature
    3. sperm require occasional shaking as occurs in the scrotum
    4. the testes require tactile stimulation in order to initiate sperm production
    5. more than one of the above is correct
  67. The condition whereby endometrial tissue develops in abnormal location is known as
    1. cryptoorchidism
    2. dysmenorrhea
    3. amenorrhea
    4. endometriosis
    5. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
  68. The portion of the urethra which is found in the prostate gland is the
    1. membranous urethra
    2. prostatic urethra
    3. penal urethra
    4. seminal urethra
    5. none of the above
  69. The enzymes that facilitate the penetration of the sperm into the ovum are contained in the
    1. midpiece
    2. flagellum
    3. acrosome
    4. tail
    5. none of the above
  70. The mitochondria that power the sperm are found in the
    1. head
    2. acrosome
    3. midpiece
    4. tail
    5. Golgi body
  71. The inability of a man to obtain or sustain an erection best defines
    1. cryptoorchidism
    2. necrophilia
    3. impotence
    4. incompetence
    5. anguish
  72. The severe physical and emotional stress that sometimes occurs late in the postovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle is known as
    1. endometriosis
    2. dysmenorrhea
    3. amenorrhea
    4. PMS
    5. BMW
  73. The morula is derived from the
    1. sperm
    2. egg
    3. zygote
    4. gastrula
    5. blastula
  74. The hollow ball of the cells that morula gives rise to is known as the
    1. gastrula
    2. blastocyst
    3. zygote
    4. blastomere
    5. none of the above
  75. The trophectoderm is the
    1. outer covering of cells of the blastocyst
    2. part of the ultimately forms of the embryo
    3. outer opening of the gastrula
    4. the cavity that remains in the embryo after development is complete
    5. none of the above